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SQL Server - Quiz(MCQ)
A)
IBM
B)
Google
C)
Microsoft
D)
Oracle

Correct Answer :   Microsoft


Explanation : SQL Server is defined as a relational database management system (RDBMS) developed by Microsoft. T-SQL means Transact-SQL, a propriety Language by Microsoft. Microsoft and Sybase released version 1.0 in 1989. Various Editions of SQL Server are Enterprise, Standard, Web, Developer, and Express.

A)
1986
B)
1989
C)
1991
D)
1993

Correct Answer :   1989


Explanation : The history of Microsoft SQL Server begins with the first Microsoft SQL Server database product - SQL Server v1. 0, a 16-bit Relational Database for the OS/2 operating system, released in 1989.

A)
Sybase
B)
Microsoft
C)
Ashton-Tate
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : First version of SQL Server was designed for the OS/2 platform and was developed jointly by Microsoft and Sybase along with Ashton-Tate.

A)
6
B)
7
C)
8
D)
9

Correct Answer :   9


Explanation : Support for XML is integrated into all the components from SQL Server 2005 RTM 9.

A)
Denali
B)
Katmai
C)
Hekaton
D)
Kilimanjaro

Correct Answer :   Denali


Explanation : Codenames for SQL Server 2005, 2008, 2008 R2, 2012, 2014 are Yukon, Katmai, Kilimanjaro, Denali and Hekaton respectively.

A)
Powerpivot
B)
Filestream
C)
Dynamic Management Views
D)
In-memory capability

Correct Answer :   Dynamic Management Views


Explanation : SQL Server 2005 introduced DMVs (Dynamic Management Views), which are specialized views and functions that return server state information. FILESTREAM, Powerpivot and in-memory capability were introduced in 2008,2008 R2 and 2014 respectively.

A)
2008
B)
2012
C)
2014
D)
2008 R2

Correct Answer :   2012


Explanation : LocalDB was introduced in SQL Server 2012 CTP3. It’s basically a new version of SQL Express, with same functionality, dedicated to developers.

A)
SQL Server Web
B)
SQL Server Enterprise
C)
SQL Server Express
D)
SQL Server Workgroup

Correct Answer :   SQL Server Express


Explanation : SQL Server Express Edition is a scaled down, free edition of SQL Server, which includes the core database engine.

A)
SQL Server 2005
B)
SQL Server 6.5
C)
SQL Server 7.0
D)
SQL Server 2008

Correct Answer :   SQL Server 7.0


Explanation : SQL Server 7.0 provides a graphical user interface to interactively build a query and view the result for data source types.

A)
SQL Server 2005
B)
SQL Server 2008
C)
SQL Server 2012
D)
SQL Server 2014

Correct Answer :   SQL Server 2014


Explanation : SQL Server 2014 provides a new in-memory capability for tables that can fit entirely in memory (also known as Hekaton).

A)
Front end tool
B)
Back end tool
C)
SQL Server
D)
Database engine

Correct Answer :   Front end tool


Explanation : Management Studio is a front-end client tool used to manage SQL Server and develop databases.

A)
Query Editor
B)
Object Explorer
C)
Properties window
D)
Template Explorer

Correct Answer :   Object Explorer


Explanation : Object Explorer is used for administering and developing SQL Server database objects.

A)
T-SQL scripts
B)
Properties
C)
Query design
D)
Registered Servers

Correct Answer :   T-SQL scripts


Explanation : Template Explorer is used to create and manage T-SQL code templates.

A)
Ctrl + !
B)
Ctrl + |
C)
Ctrl + \
D)
Ctrl + /

Correct Answer :   Ctrl + \


Explanation : Error List (Ctrl+\, Ctrl+E) lists multiple errors.

A)
Hide
B)
Clear
C)
Reset
D)
Reset all

Correct Answer :   Reset


Explanation : To reset Management Studio to its default configuration (Object Explorer ➪ Tabbed Documents ➪Property Window) use the Window ➪ Reset Window Layout menu command

A)
Query Editor
B)
Context Explorer
C)
Template Explorer
D)
Registered Servers

Correct Answer :   Registered Servers


Explanation : Using Registered Servers, connection information can be maintained for connections to the Database Engine, Analysis Services, Reporting Services, SQL Server Mobile Edition Databases, and Integration Services.

A)
Query Editor
B)
Table designer
C)
Query Designer
D)
Database Diagrams

Correct Answer :   Table designer


Explanation : Table Designer is used to create and modify tables (rows and columns).

A)
Query pane
B)
Grid pane
C)
Diagram pane
D)
Results pane

Correct Answer :   Query pane


Explanation : Query Designer does not provide Query pane for querying database schema.

A)
image
B)
varchar(max)
C)
nvarchar(max)
D)
varbinary(max)

Correct Answer :   image


Explanation : In SQL Server, based on their storage characteristics, some data types are designated as large value data types and large object data types.

A)
3
B)
5
C)
6
D)
8

Correct Answer :   6


Explanation : SQL Server offers six categories of data types for your use:-exact numeric, Unicode character strings, approximate numeric, Binary strings, Date and time and Character strings.

A)
int
B)
bigint
C)
smallmoney
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : Exact numeric data types store numeric values where you wish to specify the precision of the variable. They may include integer or decimal numbers.

A)
date
B)
sql_variant
C)
ntext
D)
smallmoney

Correct Answer :   sql_variant


Explanation : sql_variant is data type that stores values of various SQL Server-supported data types.

A)
Add TIMESTAMP column to the table
B)
Add a DATETIME column to the table and write a trigger that sets its value
C)
Add a DATETIME column to the table and assign getdate() as the default value
D)
Add a UNIQUEIDENTIFIER column to the table and use it with SQL Server’s built-in functions

Correct Answer :   Add TIMESTAMP column to the table


Explanation : The correct answer is Add a DATETIME column to the table and write a trigger that sets its value.

A)
bit
B)
geography
C)
boolean
D)
hierarchyid

Correct Answer :   boolean


Explanation : SQL Server doesn’t have a Boolean data type, at least not by that name. To store True/False, Yes/No, and On/Off values, use the bit data type. It accepts only three values: 0, 1, and NULL.

A)
Cursor
B)
sql_variant
C)
Smallmoney
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Smallmoney


Explanation : Monetary data types are data types that represent monetary or currency values such as smallmoney and money.

A)
real
B)
timestamp
C)
smallmoney
D)
uniqueidentifier

Correct Answer :   timestamp


Explanation : uniqueidentifier, real and smallmoney data types have storage size of 16,4 and 4 bytes respectively.

A)
GETDATE
B)
Cert_ID
C)
SYSDATETIME
D)
SET DATEFIRST

Correct Answer :   GETDATE


Explanation : GETDATE function is used to obtain the current system date and time. Although GETDATE doesn’t have any input parameters, you still need to include the parentheses in your code because that’s how SQL Server typically identifies functions.

A)
PI
B)
ATN2
C)
POWER
D)
CEIL

Correct Answer :   CEIL


Explanation : SQL Server has CEILING function to get the smallest integer greater than the specified expression.

A)
Encryption Hashing
B)
Symmetric Encryption and decryption
C)
Asymmetric Encryption and decryption
D)
Symmetric decryption with Automatic key handling

Correct Answer :   Symmetric decryption with Automatic key handling


Explanation : DecryptByKeyAutoCert function decrypts by using a symmetric key that is automatically decrypted with a certificate.

A)
table valued
B)
deterministic
C)
nondeterministic
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   nondeterministic


Explanation : Text and image functions are nondeterministic. This means they do not always return the same results every time they are called, even with the same set of input values.

A)
PARSE
B)
TRY_CASE
C)
TRY_CAST
D)
CAST and CONVERT

Correct Answer :   TRY_CASE


Explanation : Conversion functions support data type casting and converting.

A)
DENSE_RANK
B)
NTILE
C)
RANK
D)
ROW_NUMBER

Correct Answer :   DENSE_RANK


Explanation : DENSE_RANK function makes the rank of a row is one plus the number of distinct ranks that come before the row in question.

A)
4
B)
5
C)
6
D)
7

Correct Answer :   4


Explanation : SQL Server provides many built-in functions and also lets you create user-defined functions:- Rowset, Aggregate, Ranking and Scalar Function.

A)
Equi-join
B)
Outer join
C)
Natural join
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Outer join


Explanation : OUTER JOIN is the only join which shows the unmatched rows.

A)
Equi-join
B)
Outer join
C)
Natural join
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : Outer join returns the row having matching as well as non matching values.

A)
Combines the output from multiple queries and does not include the same number of columns
B)
Combines the output from no more than two queries and must include the same number of columns
C)
Combines the output from multiple queries and must include the same number of columns
D)
Combines the output from no more than two queries and does not include the same number of columns

Correct Answer :   Combines the output from multiple queries and must include the same number of columns


Explanation : A single UNION can combine only 2 sql query at a time.

A)
Uses the result of an outer query to determine the processing of an inner query
B)
Uses the result of an outer query to determine the processing of an outer query
C)
Uses the result of an inner query to determine the processing of an inner query
D)
Uses the result of an inner query to determine the processing of an outer query

Correct Answer :   Uses the result of an inner query to determine the processing of an outer query


Explanation : A ‘correlated subquery’ is a term used for specific types of queries in SQL in computer databases. It is a subquery (a query nested inside another query) that uses values from the outer query in its WHERE clause.

A)
Cartesian join
B)
Outer join
C)
Equi-join
D)
Natural join

Correct Answer :   Cartesian join


Explanation : Cartesian Join is simply the joining of one or more table which returns the product of all the rows in these tables.

A)
Equi-join
B)
Outer join
C)
Natural join
D)
Cartesian join

Correct Answer :   Natural join


Explanation : A NATURAL JOIN is an inner join where the RDBMS automatically selects the join columns based on common columns names. Some RDBMS vendors, like Oracle but not SQL Server, implement a NATURAL JOIN operator.

A)
one
B)
two
C)
three
D)
four

Correct Answer :   two


Explanation : In SQL Server we have two types of views-System Defined Views and User Defined View.

A)
Simple View
B)
System Defined Views
C)
Complex View
D)
User Defined View

Correct Answer :   System Defined Views


Explanation : Dynamic Management Views were introduced in SQL Server 2005. These Views give the administrator information of the database about the current state of the SQL Server machine.

A)
CREATE VIEW AS SELECT
B)
DROP VIEW AS SELECT
C)
CREATE VIEW AS UPDATE
D)
CREATE VIEW AS UPDATE

Correct Answer :   CREATE VIEW AS SELECT


Explanation : SQL CREATE VIEW Syntax:CREATE VIEW view_name AS SELECT column_name(s) FROM table_name WHERE condition.

A)
DELETE VIEW
B)
REMOVE VIEW
C)
TRUNCATE VIEW
D)
DROP VIEW

Correct Answer :   DROP VIEW


Explanation : DROP VIEW removes one or more views from the current database.

A)
sys.dm_exec_connections
B)
INFORMATION_SCHEMA.KEY_COLUMN_USAGE
C)
INFORMATION_SCHEMA.DOMAIN_CONSTRAINTS
D)
INFORMATION_SCHEMA.CONSTRAINT_TABLE_USAGE

Correct Answer :   sys.dm_exec_connections


Explanation : The INFORMATION_SCHEMA views allow you to retrieve metadata about the objects within a database. These views can be found in the master database under Views / System Views and be called from any database in your SQL Server instance.

A)
Catalog View
B)
Complex View
C)
Database-scoped Dynamic Management View
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   None of the above


Explanation : Server-scoped Dynamic Management View is stored only in the Master database.

A)
Where
B)
With
C)
Having
D)
Group by

Correct Answer :   With


Explanation : The with clause provides a way of defining a temporary relation whose definition is available only to the query in which the with clause occurs.

A)
In
B)
With
C)
Lateral
D)
Having

Correct Answer :   Lateral


Explanation :

Select name, salary, avg salary from instructor I1, lateral (select avg(salary) as avg salary from instructor I2 where I2.dept name= I1.dept name);
Without the lateral clause, the subquery cannot access the correlation variable I1 from the outer query.

A)
Avg
B)
Distinct
C)
Count
D)
Primary key

Correct Answer :   Distinct


Explanation : Distinct keyword is used to select only unique items from the relation.

A)
Avg
B)
Sum
C)
Count(*)
D)
Count(attribute)

Correct Answer :   Count(attribute)


Explanation : * is used to select all values including null.

A)
Not exists
B)
Exist
C)
Exists
D)
Not exist

Correct Answer :   Not exists


Explanation : Exists is used to check for the existence of tuples.

A)
Set-Alias
B)
Get-Child
C)
Get-ChildItem
D)
Get-Command

Correct Answer :   Get-ChildItem


Explanation : Get-ChildItem is used to get the contents of a folder or registry key.

A)
ConvertFrom-CSV
B)
Convert-CSV
C)
ConvertFromCSV
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   ConvertFrom-CSV


Explanation : ConvertFrom-CSV convert object properties (in CSV format) into CSV objects.

A)
Get-Member
B)
Get-Process | Get-Member
C)
Get-Process
D)
None of the Above

Correct Answer :   Get-Process | Get-Member


Explanation : The Get-Process cmdlet gets the processes on a local or remote computer.

A)
Set-Policy restricted
B)
Set-Policy Unrestricted
C)
Both (A) and (B)
D)
Set-ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted

Correct Answer :   Set-ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted


Explanation : Unrestricted removes all restrictions from the execution policy.

A)
2003
B)
2005
C)
2008
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   2008


Explanation : SQL Server has had only a partial implementation up to now, but it has come up in SQL 2012.

A)
Association
B)
Aggregation
C)
Generalization
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Aggregation


Explanation : Most important benefit of window functions is that we can access the detail of the rows from an aggregation.

A)
RANK
B)
NTILE
C)
ROW_NUMBER
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   RANK


Explanation : Since SQL Server 2005 we have had support for some window functions, they are: ROW_NUMBER, RANK, DENSE_RANK and NTILE.

A)
LEAD
B)
LAG
C)
FIRST_VALUE
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   LEAD


Explanation : There are 8 analytic window functions in SQL Server 2012.

59 .
The query given below will give an error. Which one of the following has to be replaced to get the desired output?
SELECT ID, name FROM 1_Order WHERE instructor=1;
A)
Instructor
B)
2Order
C)
3Order
D)
_Order

Correct Answer :   _Order


Explaination : Table name should not start with numerical value as per naming convention in T-SQL.

A)
drop database_name
B)
Delete database_name
C)
Delete database database_name
D)
drop database database_name

Correct Answer :   drop database database_name


Explanation : This will delete the database with its structure.

A)
In Predicate
B)
Out Predicate
C)
Like Predicate
D)
Null Predicate

Correct Answer :   Like Predicate


Explanation : Like matches the pattern with the query.

A)
Recovery
B)
Backup
C)
Deadlock
D)
Concurrency

Correct Answer :   Backup


Explanation : Backup is required to protect the data.

A)
Inner
B)
Equi
C)
Outer
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Inner


Explanation : Inner query joins only the rows that are matching.

A)
ALTER database_name
B)
ALTER database_name
C)
ALTER database database_name
D)
ALTER database database_name

Correct Answer :   ALTER database database_name


Explanation : ALTER Statement will alter the database structure and its related functionalities.

A)
NULL
B)
CHECK
C)
UNIQUE
D)
NOT NULL

Correct Answer :   NULL


Explanation : NOT NULL specifies that the column does not accept NULL values. For more information.

A)
UNIQUE
B)
Primary key
C)
Foreign key
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Foreign key


Explanation : FOREIGN KEY constraints identify and enforce the relationships between tables.

A)
A foreign key in one table points to a candidate key in another table
B)
FOREIGN KEY constraints identify and enforce the relationships between tables
C)
You cannot insert a row with a foreign key value, except NULL, if there is no candidate key with that value
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   FOREIGN KEY constraints identify and enforce the relationships between tables


Explanation : Foreign key is to enforce referential integrity.

A)
SET NULL
B)
NO ACTION
C)
CASCADE
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   NO ACTION


Explanation : The ON UPDATE clause defines the actions that are taken if you try to update a candidate key value to which existing foreign keys point.

A)
4
B)
5
C)
6
D)
7

Correct Answer :   6


Explanation : Constraints are Primary key, Foreign Key, Unique Key, Not Null, Check, Default.

A)
Check constraint
B)
Not Null constraint
C)
Foreign Key constraint
D)
Primary key constraint

Correct Answer :   Primary key constraint


Explanation : Each table is having only one primary key constraint and it contains only unique values.

71 .
What is purpose of GetDescendant method in the following code?
 
DECLARE @parent HierarchyId = HierarchyId::GetRoot()
INSERT INTO H (Node,ID,Name) VALUES (@parent.GetDescendant(NULL,NULL),2,'Johnny')
A)
Takes 2 arguments
B)
Takes 3 arguments
C)
Takes 4 arguments
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Takes 2 arguments


Explaination : GetDescendant method takes 2 arguments indicating the left and right nodes on the child level respectively.

72 .
Which of the following function returns true in the following code?
DECLARE @parent HierarchyId = (SELECT Node FROM H WHERE Name = 'Thuru')
DECLARE @parentNodeLevel INT = (SELECT NodeLevel FROM h WHERE name = 'Thuru')
SELECT Node.ToString() AS NodeText, *  FROM H WHERE Node.IsDescendantOf(@parent) = 'TRUE' 
AND Node != @parent AND 
NodeLevel = @parentNodeLevel + 1
A)
IsDescendantOf
B)
IsDescendant
C)
DescendantOf
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   IsDescendantOf


Explaination : In the above query,immediate children is returned using the NodeLevel column (@parentNodeLevel + 1). And also notice that I have opted out the parent node because IsDescendantOf function includes the parent node as well in the result.

A)
DELETE H WHERE Name = ‘Steve’
B)
DROP FROM H WHERE Name = ‘Steve’
C)
DELETE FROM H WHERE Name = ‘Steve’
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   DELETE FROM H WHERE Name = ‘Steve’


Explanation : Deleting a node does not automatically delete the child nodes, this would result in orphaned children.

74 .
Which of the following function will be used in the following code for moving nodes?
DECLARE @newParent HierarchyId = (SELECT Node FROM H WHERE name = 'Johnny')
UPDATE H SET Node = Node.__________(Node.GetAncestor(1),@newParent)
WHERE Name = 'S1'
A)
GetValue
B)
GetReparentedValue
C)
GetReparentedVal
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   GetReparentedValue


Explaination : The GetReparentedValue function is used to move the nodes to different locations.

A)
Order is inherent in your data
B)
Your data represents containment hierarchy
C)
Your data is sparse or you do not know the structure of the data
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : XML is a good choice if you want a platform-independent model in order to ensure the portability of the data by using structural and semantic markup.

A)
Small object storage
B)
Native storage as XML data type
C)
Mapping between XML and relational storage
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Small object storage


Explanation : XML uses large object storage which uses varchar(max) and varbinary(max).

A)
Indexing
B)
Storage options
C)
Query capabilities
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : Different XML choices may also have different performance characteristics.

A)
Using XML with views
B)
Combination of relational and XML data type columns
C)
Using XML with triggers
D)
Combination of relational and non relational data type columns

Correct Answer :   Combination of relational and XML data type columns


Explanation : Hybrid model may yield better performance in that you have more control over the indexes created on the relational columns and locking characteristics.

A)
Hierarchy
B)
Degree of Structure
C)
Granularity
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Granularity


Explanation : When the granularity is large, locking large XML instances for updates causes throughput to decline in a multi user scenario.

A)
SQL Server 2000
B)
SQL Server 2005
C)
SQL Server 2008
D)
SQL Server 2012

Correct Answer :   SQL Server 2005


Explanation : XML data type allows variables and columns to be created to specifically hold xml data, whether it be an entire XML document or just some XML content.

A)
Stored Procedure
B)
In memory database
C)
Dynamic management views
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Stored Procedure


Explanation : You need to create a stored procedure to process incoming XML from a partner before SQL Server 2005.

A)
query()
B)
value()
C)
nodes()
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   query()


Explanation : xml.query() method takes an XQuery statement and returns an instance of the XML data type.

A)
3
B)
4
C)
5
D)
6

Correct Answer :   5


Explanation : SQL Server provides five xquery methods to query xml file or xml data.

A)
Name
B)
Qidt
C)
Qnam
D)
QName

Correct Answer :   QName


Explanation : A QName is made up of a namespace prefix and a local name. In this implementation, the variable names in XQuery are QNames and they cannot have prefixes.

A)
Type
B)
Static
C)
Dynamic
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : The W3C specification allows type errors to be raised statically or dynamically, and defines static, dynamic, and type errors.

A)
XML value
B)
Typed
C)
Non numerical value
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Typed


Explanation : Some of the XQuery operators, such as arithmetic and comparison operators, depend on atomization.

A)
Delete nodes
B)
Insert nodes
C)
Change nodes
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Delete nodes


Explanation : To change or remove a portion of the content in an XML variable or column, the modify() method can be used.

A)
To search inside xml data types
B)
To examine the XML and return back a scalar value
C)
To determine if the XML data contains a certain node
D)
To Shred the XML nodes of the XML data into relational columns

Correct Answer :   To determine if the XML data contains a certain node


Explanation : exist() method is used to determine whether a query returns a nonempty result or not.

A)
scalar
B)
full-text
C)
simple queries
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   full-text


Explanation : Before you can run full-text queries on a table, the database administrator must create a full-text index on the table.

A)
faster
B)
Medium
C)
slower
D)
optimal

Correct Answer :   optimal


Explanation : Full-text queries perform linguistic searches against text data in full-text indexes.

A)
String
B)
Textual data
C)
Character data
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : Full Text Index can be used to search words, phrases and multiple forms of word or phrase.

A)
exact
B)
similar
C)
different
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   exact


Explanation : In full-text search, a word (or token) is a string whose boundaries are identified by appropriate word breakers, following the linguistic rules of the specified language.

A)
DB_CHAINING option
B)
DATABASE SNAPSHOT syntax
C)
READ_COMMITTED_SNAPSHOT
D)
ATTACH_REBUILD_LOG clause

Correct Answer :   READ_COMMITTED_SNAPSHOT


Explanation : ALTER DATABASE is used for instant file initialization when adding or growing data files.

A)
Database mirroring
B)
Service Broker options
C)
DB_CHAINING
D)
ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION

Correct Answer :   Service Broker options


Explanation : CREATE DATABASE is used mainly for creating new database.

A)
VIEW
B)
READ
C)
WRITE
D)
CONTROL

Correct Answer :   CONTROL


Explanation : To execute DROP DATABASE, at a minimum, a user must have CONTROL permission on the database.

A)
status.databases
B)
sys.databases
C)
system.databases
D)
current.databases

Correct Answer :   sys.databases


Explanation : sys.databases catalog view is used for displaying the present status of the system.

A)
T-SQL
B)
P-SQL
C)
PL-SQL
D)
PG-SQL

Correct Answer :   T-SQL


Explanation : Transact-SQL (T-SQL) is Microsoft’s and Sybase’s proprietary extension to SQL.

A)
General office productivity applications
B)
Applications that use general language sentences to determine what data a user wants to see
C)
Applications that use a graphical user interface (GUI) to let users select the tables and columns from which they want to see data
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : Transact-SQL is central to using SQL Server. All applications that communicate with an instance of SQL Server do so by sending Transact-SQL statements to the server, regardless of the user interface of the application.

A)
CREATE USERS
B)
END CONVERSATION
C)
BEGIN CONVERSATION TIMER
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   CREATE USERS


Explanation : SQL Server Service Broker provides native support for messaging and queuing applications in the SQL Server Database Engine.

A)
Returns the status for the last transmission for end side of a conversation
B)
Returns the status for the last transmission for one side of a conversation
C)
Returns the status for the first transmission for one side of a conversation
D)
Returns the status for the first transmission for end side of a conversation

Correct Answer :   Returns the status for the last transmission for one side of a conversation


Explanation : GET_TRANSMISSION_STATUS returns a string describing the status of the last transmission attempt for the specified conversation.

A)
SETUSER
B)
EXECUTE AS
C)
ADD SIGNATURE
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : SQL Server provides many security statements for a secure database.

A)
Closes the public key of the current database
B)
Closes the private key of the current database
C)
Deletes the master key of the current database
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Deletes the master key of the current database


Explanation : CLOSE MASTER KEY statement closes the master key of the current database.

A)
Flow language
B)
Control language
C)
Control-of-flow language
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Control-of-flow language


Explanation : Transact-SQL provides special words called control-of-flow language that control the flow of execution of Transact-SQL statements.

A)
GO
B)
GOTO
C)
IF
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   GOTO


Explanation : The Transact-SQL statement or statements that follow GOTO are skipped and processing continues at the label.

A)
BREAK and CONTINUE
B)
IF and ELSE
C)
BREAK and IF
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   BREAK and CONTINUE


Explanation : The BREAK statement exits the innermost WHILE loop and the CONTINUE statement restarts a WHILE loop.

A)
when an IF statement controls the execution of multiple Transact-SQL statement
B)
when an IF statement controls the execution of only one Transact-SQL statement
C)
when an IF statement controls the execution of one or more Transact-SQL statement
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   when an IF statement controls the execution of only one Transact-SQL statement


Explanation : Use the BEGIN and END statements anywhere a control-of-flow statement must execute a block of two or more Transact-SQL statements.

A)
A WHILE loop needs to include a block of statements
B)
An IF or ELSE clause needs to include a block of statements
C)
An element of a CASE expression needs to include a block of statements
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : A BEGIN and END statement block must contain at least one Transact-SQL statement.

108 .
The following code snippet uses the DELAY keyword to wait for ______ seconds.
WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:02';
SELECT BusinessEntityID FROM 
AdventureWorks2008R2.HumanResources.Employee;
A)
2
B)
3
C)
4
D)
5

Correct Answer :   2


Explaination : The DELAY keyword followed by a time_to_pass before completing the WAITFOR statement. The time to wait before completing the WAITFOR statement can be up to 24 hours.

A)
2014
B)
2012
C)
2008
D)
2005

Correct Answer :   2008


Explanation : Variable feature was introduced in SQL Server 2008.

A)
@@ERROR
B)
@@IDENTITY
C)
@@CPU_BUSY
D)
@@MAX_CONNECTIONS

Correct Answer :   @@IDENTITY


Explanation : @@identity retains the last value inserted into an IDENTITY column, even if the statement that inserted it fails to commit.

A)
@@IDLE
B)
@@LANGID
C)
@@ERROR
D)
@@LANGUAGE

Correct Answer :   @@IDLE


Explanation : Return type of @@IDLE is int.

A)
2
B)
3
C)
4
D)
5

Correct Answer :   5


Explanation : The five steps are Declare Cursor,Open,fetch,CLose and Deallocate.

A)
3
B)
4
C)
5
D)
6

Correct Answer :   4


Explanation : SQL Server supports four types of cursor.

A)
FOR
B)
IF..ELSE
C)
WHILE
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   WHILE


Explanation : Cursor alternatives are WHILE loop, subqueries, Temporary tables and Table variables.

A)
Inserted
B)
Updated
C)
Deleted
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : A dynamic cursor allows you to see the data updation, deletion and insertion in the data source while the cursor is open.

A)
KEYSET
B)
FAST_FORWARD
C)
FORWARD_ONLY STATIC
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   FORWARD_ONLY STATIC


Explanation : A FORWARD_ONLY STATIC Cursor is populated at the time of creation and cached the data to the cursor lifetime. It is not sensitive to any changes to the data source.

A)
Read-only
B)
Write-only
C)
Read, Write
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Read-only


Explanation : A static cursor populates the result set at the time of cursor creation and query result is cached for the lifetime of the cursor.

A)
TRY…END
B)
TRY…CATCH
C)
TRY…FINAL
D)
CATCH…TRY

Correct Answer :   TRY…CATCH


Explanation : SQL Server 2005 introduced TRY…CATCH statement which helps us to handle the errors effectively in the back end.

A)
DROP
B)
INSERT
C)
CREATE
D)
DELETE

Correct Answer :   INSERT


Explanation : DML statements can be checked for handling errors.

A)
Message handling
B)
Stored Procedure handling
C)
Error handling
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Error handling


Explanation : TRY… CATCH implements error handling for Transact-SQL that is similar to the exception handling in the Microsoft Visual C#.

A)
THROW
B)
FINAL
C)
FINALLY
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   THROW


Explanation : Generates an error message and initiates error processing for the session.

A)
ERROR()
B)
ERROR_MSG()
C)
ERROR_STATUS()
D)
ERROR_STATE()

Correct Answer :   ERROR_STATE()


Explanation : ERROR_STATE() returns the state number of the error.

A)
Severity
B)
Full text
C)
State number
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Severity


Explanation : ERROR_SEVERITY() returns the severity level of the error.

A)
Return codes, which are always an integer value
B)
A single cursor that can be referenced inside the stored procedure
C)
A global cursor that can be referenced outside the stored procedure
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   None of the above


Explanation : Output parameters, which can return either data (such as an integer or character value) or a cursor variable (cursors are result sets that can be retrieved one row at a time).

A)
sp_owner
B)
sp_change
C)
sp_changeowner
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   None of the above


Explanation : sp_help provides details on any database object such as tables,views and so on.

A)
System
B)
Extended
C)
User defined
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   User defined


Explanation : User defined procedure can be created in all system databases except the Resource database or in a user-defined database.

A)
Views
B)
Triggers
C)
Functions
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : We can nest stored procedures and managed code references in Sql Server up to 32 levels only.

A)
@@NEST
B)
@@LEVEL
C)
@@NESTLEVEL
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   @@NESTLEVEL


Explanation : When @@NESTLEVEL is executed within a Transact-SQL string, the value returned is 1 + the current nesting level.

A)
Result set
B)
Scalar value
C)
Set of values
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : SQL Server user-defined functions are routines that accept parameters, perform an action, such as a complex calculation, and return the result of that action as a value.

A)
Drop
B)
Insert
C)
Create
D)
Select

Correct Answer :   Insert


Explanation : We can’t use function to Insert, Update, Delete records in the database table(s).

A)
They allow modular programming
B)
They allow slower execution
C)
They can increase network traffic
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   They allow modular programming

A)
CREATE FUNC
B)
CREATE FUNCTIONS
C)
CREATE FUNCTION
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   CREATE FUNCTION


Explanation : If a CREATE FUNCTION statement produces side effects against resources that do not exist when the CREATE FUNCTION statement is issued.

A)
Float
B)
String
C)
Numerical
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : We return any data type value from function.

A)
View
B)
Stored
C)
Table
D)
Function

Correct Answer :   Stored


Explanation : Triggers are used to assess/evaluate data before or after data modification using DDL and DML statements.

A)
4
B)
5
C)
6
D)
7

Correct Answer :   4


Explanation : In Sql Server we can create four types of triggers Data Definition Language (DDL) triggers, Data Manipulation Language (DML) triggers, CLR triggers and Logon triggers.

A)
Table
B)
Views
C)
Table and Views
D)
Function

Correct Answer :   Table and Views


Explanation : AFTER trigger fires after SQL Server completes the execution of the action successfully that fired it.

A)
Insert
B)
Update
C)
Delete
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : In SQL Server we can create triggers on DML statements (like INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE) and stored procedures that perform DML-like operations.

A)
AFTER
B)
CLR
C)
INSTEAD OF
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   AFTER


Explanation : AFTER triggers do not work for views.

A)
Insert
B)
Select
C)
Delete
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Select


Explanation : Valid trigger actions are INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE, or a combination of several, separated by commas.

A)
ALTER TABLE statement
B)
DROP TABLE statement
C)
DELETE TABLE statement
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   ALTER TABLE statement


Explanation : You can also use the ALL keyword instead of a trigger name to enable/disable all of the triggers on a table in question.

A)
Using EXEC
B)
Using sp_executesql
C)
Writing a query with parameters
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : SQL Server offer three ways of running a dynamically built SQL statement.

A)
Cursor
B)
Function
C)
Stored procedure
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Stored procedure


Explanation : Dynamic SQL is a term used to mean SQL code that is generated programmatically (in part or fully) by your program before it is executed.

143 .
Below Code is procedure for dynamic SQL using ___________ parameter.
CREATE PROCEDURE GetArticle 
               @ArticleID INT 
        AS 
        SELECT ArticleTitle, ArticleBody FROM 
        Articles
        WHERE ArticleID = @ArticleID GO -
A)
input
B)
output
C)
input and output
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   input


Explaination : The output of an SP could also be returned in an output parameter.

A)
EXEC_SQL(@SQLStatement)
B)
EXECUTE(@SQLStatement)
C)
SP_EXECUTE(@SQLStatement)
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   EXECUTE(@SQLStatement)


Explanation :

EXECUTE command is demonstrated using :
SET @SQLQuery = 'SELECT * FROM tblEmployees
WHERE EmployeeID = ' + CAST(@EmpID AS NVARCHAR(10))
EXECUTE(@SQLQuery)

A)
executesql
B)
sp_execute
C)
sp_executesql
D)
xp_executesql

Correct Answer :   sp_executesql


Explanation : sp_executesql executes a Transact-SQL statement or batch that can be reused many times or one that has been built dynamically. Run time-compiled Transact-SQL statements can expose applications to malicious attacks.

A)
malicious
B)
clean
C)
redundant
D)
non malicious

Correct Answer :   malicious


Explanation : SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications.

A)
xp_reg
B)
xp_write
C)
xp_read
D)
xp_regwrite

Correct Answer :   xp_regwrite


Explanation : xp_regwrite writes an arbitrary value into the Registry (undocumented extended procedure).

A)
sp_addproc ‘xp_cmdshell’,’xp_log70.dll’
B)
sp_addextendedproc ‘xp_cmdshell’,’log70.dll’
C)
sp_addextendedproc ‘xp_cmdshell’,’xp_log70.dll’
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   sp_addextendedproc ‘xp_cmdshell’,’xp_log70.dll’


Explanation : Security best practices for SQL Server recommends disabling xp_cmdshell in SQL Server 2000 (in SQL Server 2005 it is disabled by default). However, if we have sysadmin rights (natively or by bruteforcing the sysadmin password, see below), we can often bypass this limitation.

A)
IF condition true-part ELSE false-part (S)
B)
For integer inputs : convert(int,@@version)
C)
SELECT loginame FROM master..sysprocesses WHERE spid = @@SPID
D)
SELECT header, txt FROM news UNION ALL SELECT name, pass FROM members

Correct Answer :   For integer inputs : convert(int,@@version)


Explanation : Quick detection attacks should throw conversion errors.

A)
Quick detection
B)
Initial Exploitation
C)
Inline Comments
D)
Blind SQL Injection

Correct Answer :   Blind SQL Injection


Explanation : Blind SQL Injection is just like sleep, wait for specified time.

A)
Full
B)
Partial
C)
Simple
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Full


Explanation : You can minimize logging for a set of bulk operations by switching the database to the bulk-logged recovery model temporarily for bulk operations.

A)
bcp
B)
BULK INSERT
C)
INSERT..SELECT
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : SQL Server bulk-import operations do not support importing data from comma-separated value (CSV) files.

A)
icp utility
B)
dcp utility
C)
bcp utility
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   bcp utility


Explanation : bcp is a command line utility for bulk import and export.

A)
UPDATE
B)
DELETE
C)
INSERT … SELECT
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   INSERT … SELECT


Explanation : INSERT … SELECT is a Transact-SQL statement that uses the OPENROWSET bulk rowset provider to bulk import data into a SQL Server table by specifying the OPENROWSET(BULK…) function to select data in an INSERT statement.

A)
KEEPNULLS
B)
KEEPIDENTITY
C)
FIRE_TRIGGERS
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   None of the above


Explanation : BATCHSIZE =batch_size specifies the number of rows in a batch. Each batch is copied to the server as one transaction.

A)
Brackets
B)
Comma
C)
Full stop
D)
Parenthesis

Correct Answer :   Comma


Explanation : Field Terminator is used to delimit columns in the source file. There are some cases where I have seen “|” also. “,” can be part of Name. So in that case the bulk insert may fail.

A)
2005
B)
2008
C)
2012
D)
2014

Correct Answer :   2005


Explanation : Service Broker in Microsoft SQL Server 2005 is a new technology that provides messaging and queuing functions between instances.

A)
3
B)
4
C)
5
D)
6

Correct Answer :   3


Explanation : The three components of the Service broker are as follows: conversation components, service definition components and networking and security components.

A)
Security
B)
Service definition
C)
Conversation
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Conversation


Explanation : Networking and security components defines the infrastructure used for exchanging messages between instances.

A)
Read
B)
Unauthorized
C)
Authorized
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Unauthorized


Explanation : Service broker is essential component for security of database.

A)
distributed
B)
decoupled
C)
asynchronous
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : SQL Server Service Broker (SSBS), introduced with SQL Server 2005 allows you to write queuing/message based applications within the database itself.

A)
Less support for Service Broker
B)
Queues do not expose the message enqueued time
C)
Messages can be sent to multiple target services (multicast)
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Messages can be sent to multiple target services (multicast)


Explanation : Queues have a new column, message_enqueue_time, that shows how long a message has been in the queue.

A)
sys.dm_broker_tasks
B)
sys.dm_broker_activated
C)
dm_broker_activated_tasks
D)
sys.dm_broker_activated_tasks

Correct Answer :   sys.dm_broker_activated_tasks


Explanation : sys.dm_broker_activated_tasks returns a row for each stored procedure activated by Service Broker.

A)
ssbdiagnose
B)
diagnose
C)
ssiagnose
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   ssbdiagnose


Explanation : The ssbdiagnose utility reports issues in Service Broker conversations or the configuration of Service Broker services.

A)
Log Shipping
B)
Replication
C)
Database Mirroring
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Replication


Explanation : Using replication, you can distribute data to different locations and to remote or mobile users over local and wide area networks.

A)
2
B)
3
C)
4
D)
5

Correct Answer :   3


Explanation : Microsoft SQL Server provides three types of replication for use in distributed applications.

A)
Availability problems
B)
Performance problems
C)
Maintenance problems
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : Replication allows us to maintain the same database multiple copies at different locations.

A)
Easy maintenance
B)
Improved performance
C)
To move data closer to the user
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   None of the above


Explanation : In SQL Server 2005, replication had to be stopped in order to perform some actions like adding nodes, making schema changes, etc. But in 2008, these can be done online.

A)
Article
B)
Distributor
C)
Publisher
D)
Subscription

Correct Answer :   Publisher


Explanation : Publisher is a source database where replication starts.

A)
push and pull
B)
throw and pull
C)
push and throw
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   push and pull


Explanation : Push subscriptions are created at the Publisher server and pull subscriptions initiates the replication instead of the publisher.

A)
Copy and Import
B)
Import and Export
C)
Export and BulkInsert
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Import and Export


Explanation : With SSIS wizards, we can create a structure on how the data flow should happen and make a package and deploy it based on our needs to execute in any environment.

A)
Baseline source system extract speed
B)
SSIS is an in-memory pipeline, so ensure that all transformations occur in memory
C)
Plan for capacity by understanding resource utilization
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Plan for capacity by understanding resource utilization


Explanation : SQL Server Integration Services is designed to process large amounts of data row by row in memory with high speed. Because of this, it is important to understand resource utilization, i.e., the CPU, memory, I/O, and network utilization of your packages.

A)
Software Contention
B)
Application contention
C)
Processor contention
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Application contention


Explanation : In Application contention, SQL Server is taking on more processor resources, making them unavailable to SSIS.

A)
Local
B)
Private Set
C)
Public Bytes
D)
Process Bytes

Correct Answer :   Process Bytes


Explanation : Process byte is the amount of memory currently in use by Integration Services. This memory cannot be shared with other processes.

A)
Making use of parallelism
B)
Package uses few single-threaded tasks
C)
Not making use of parallelism
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Not making use of parallelism


Explanation : The design limitation of SSIS package is not making use of parallelism.

A)
Network Transfers
B)
Memory reads
C)
Network Bytes
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Network Transfers


Explanation : If Network Transfers/sec is approaching 40,000 IOPs, then get another NIC card and use teaming between the NIC cards.

A)
Link
B)
unlink
C)
import
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   unlink


Explanation : If you have linked the Access tables to one SQL Server instance, and then you want to change the links to another instance, you must relink the tables.

A)
SSMA
B)
SSMS
C)
SSAM
D)
SSAS

Correct Answer :   SSMA


Explanation : SSMA stands for Microsoft SQL Server Migration Assistant for Access.

A)
New records are not available
B)
You cannot modify a linked table schema with Access
C)
Slow performance with linked tables
D)
Auto-increment columns are not updated until the record is updated

Correct Answer :   Slow performance with linked tables

A)
Added support of MS SQL Server 2014
B)
Fixed bugs regarding invisible report pages in IE 10
C)
Set cascade actions for circular references to No Action
D)
Highlighting of “well known” LOB schemas

Correct Answer :   Highlighting of “well known” LOB schemas


Explanation : This change was done so that they can be ignored in conversion.

A)
Access Metadata Expl
B)
SQL Server Metadata Explorer
C)
Access Metadata Explorer
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Access Metadata Explorer


Explanation : SSMA contains two metadata explorers to browse and perform actions on Access and SQL Server or Azure SQL DB databases.

A)
Udp
B)
Tcp
C)
Named pipes
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Tcp


Explanation : You must restart the SQL Server service after making changes to network protocols.

A)
recovery
B)
restore
C)
backup
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   recovery


Explanation : A recovery model is a database property that controls how transactions are logged.

A)
Full
B)
Simple
C)
Bulk-logged
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Simple


Explanation : Simple recovery model is the simplest of all and maintains only a minimum amount of information in the SQL Server transaction log file.

A)
Log shipping
B)
Database mirroring
C)
Media recovery without data loss
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : Operations that require transaction log backups are not supported by the simple recovery model.

A)
4
B)
5
C)
6
D)
7

Correct Answer :   6


Explanation : Six backups if full recovery model are Complete backup, Differential backup, File and/or Filegroup backup, Partial backup, Copy-Only backup, Transaction log backup.

A)
Full
B)
Simple
C)
Bulk-logged
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Bulk-logged


Explanation : Full Recovery and Bulk-Logged Recovery models provide the greatest protection for data.

A)
ALTER DATABASE
B)
ALTER TABLE
C)
ALTER COLUMN
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   ALTER DATABASE


Explanation : You can use ALTER DATABASE command with the SET RECOVERY option to change the recovery model of a database.

A)
preventing
B)
protecting
C)
replication
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   protecting


Explanation : SQL Server offers many options for creating backups.

A)
5
B)
6
C)
7
D)
8

Correct Answer :   8


Explanation : DatabaseBackup is the SQL Server Maintenance Solution’s stored procedure for backing up databases.

A)
Supports full and transaction log style backups
B)
Wire compression of data for optimal backup and restore time
C)
Backup of MS SQL Server databases without interrupting running MS SQL Server services
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : Secure and automated backup of your company’s databases with no downtime; easy to deploy and administer.

A)
Restoring
B)
Offline
C)
Online
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Online


Explanation : Offline Data Cannot Be Backed Up.

A)
table backup
B)
data backup
C)
database backup
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   table backup


Explanation : In order to select a proper SQL Server backup type, a SQL Server administrator needs to understand the difference between the major backup.

A)
data backup
B)
database backup
C)
copy-only backup
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   database backup


Explanation : Differential database backups contain only changes made to the database since its most recent full database backup.

A)
data backup
B)
database backup
C)
copy-only backup
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   None of the above


Explanation : Log backup includes backup of transaction logs that includes all log records that were not backed up in a previous log backup.

A)
partial
B)
data backup
C)
database backup
D)
copy-only backup

Correct Answer :   partial


Explanation : Partial backups consist of data in the primary filegroup, every read/write filegroup and any optionally-specified read-only files.

A)
Task
B)
Log shipping
C)
Agent
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Agent


Explanation : The SQL Server Agent is a service that lets you configure scheduled tasks and system alerts.

A)
2
B)
3
C)
4
D)
5

Correct Answer :   3


Explanation : SQL Server Agent consist of jobs,alerts and operators.

A)
msdb
B)
master
C)
tempdb
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   msdb


Explanation : msdb is a system database that is created when you first install SQL Server.

A)
SSMS
B)
Windows Services console
C)
QL Server Service Manager
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : Open up Microsoft SQL Server Configuration Manager and locate the SQL Server Agent service. If the status of that service is “RUNNING”, you do not need to do anything.

A)
Pager
B)
E-mail
C)
Net send
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : An operator defines contact information for an individual responsible for the maintenance of one or more instances of SQL Server.

A)
members of the systemadmin
B)
members of the sysadministraion
C)
members of the sysadmin
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   members of the sysadmin


Explanation : Members of the SQLAgentUserRole, SQLAgentReaderRole, and SQLAgentOperatorRole fixed database roles in msdb, and members of the sysadmin fixed server role have access to SQL Server Agent.

A)
High Integrity
B)
High Availability
C)
High Confidentiality
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   High Availability


Explanation : High availability of the SQL Server instance is protected by the presence of redundant nodes in the FCI.

A)
Protection at the instance level through redundancy
B)
Disaster recovery solution using a multi-subnet FCI
C)
Zero reconfiguration of applications and clients during failovers
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : You can even run an FCI-hosted database inside an AlwaysOn availability group.

A)
Destination address
B)
SQL Server Browser
C)
One file share resource, if the FILESTREAM feature is installed
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   One file share resource, if the FILESTREAM feature is installed


Explanation : One file share resource is included only if the FILESTREAM feature is installed.

A)
SQL Server Binaries
B)
Storage
C)
Network Name
D)
WSFC Resource Group

Correct Answer :   SQL Server Binaries


Explanation : However, during startup, SQL Server binaries are not started automatically, but managed by WSFC.

A)
Add
B)
Update
C)
Remove
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : To update or remove a SQL Server failover cluster, you must be a local administrator with permission to login as a service on all nodes of the failover cluster.

A)
File Read Majority
B)
Node Majority
C)
No Majority: Read Only
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Node Majority


Explanation : In Node majority, each node that is available and in communication can vote. The cluster functions only with a majority of the votes.

A)
In memory database
B)
Column oriented database
C)
Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV)
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV)


Explanation : A SQL 2014 deployment with Cluster Shared Volumes provides several advantages over a deployment on “traditional” cluster storage.

A)
Security
B)
Forward compatibility
C)
Backward compatibility
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Backward compatibility


Explanation : SQL Server Authentication is provided for backward compatibility. For example, if you create a single Windows 2000 group and add all necessary users to that group you will need to grant the Windows 2000 group login rights to SQL Server and access to any necessary databases.

A)
Windows 98
B)
Windows 95
C)
Windows 7
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Windows 98


Explanation : Windows Authentication Mode is also unavailable on Microsoft Windows Millennium Edition.

A)
ID
B)
User
C)
Login
D)
Domain

Correct Answer :   Domain


Explanation : Managing access from the domain level can simplify account administration.

A)
2
B)
3
C)
4
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   3


Explanation : When using SQL Server Authentication, logins are created in SQL Server that are not based on Windows user accounts.

A)
Allows SQL Server to support Web-based applications where users create their own identities
B)
SQL Server Authentication cannot use Kerberos security protocol
C)
Allows SQL Server to support older applications and applications provided by third parties that require SQL Server Authentication
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   SQL Server Authentication cannot use Kerberos security protocol


Explanation : Windows Authentication uses Kerberos security protocol.

A)
NetValidate
B)
NetValidatePolicy
C)
NetValidatePasswordPolicy
D)
ValidatePasswordPolicy

Correct Answer :   NetValidatePasswordPolicy


Explanation : NetValidatePasswordPolicy API is only available in Windows Server 2003 and later versions.

A)
UserName = SUSER_SNAME()
B)
UserName = USER()
C)
UserName = SUSER_NAME()
D)
UserName = CURRENT_USER()

Correct Answer :   UserName = SUSER_SNAME()


Explanation : USER_NAME or CURRENT_USER Return the database user name.

A)
Visibles
B)
VisibleLabels
C)
vwVisibleLabel
D)
vwVisibleLabels

Correct Answer :   vwVisibleLabels


Explanation : The purpose of vwVisibleLabels view is to enforce the row security by joining it with the base table.

A)
fn_Dominates
B)
usp_GetUserLabel
C)
usp_GetCurrentUserLabel
D)
usp_GetSecLabelDetails

Correct Answer :   usp_GetCurrentUserLabel


Explanation : usp_GetSecLabelDetails generates the security label identifier and encryption objects for the specified label.

A)
Documentation
B)
The Label Policy Designer application
C)
Examples showing the implementation of row- and cell-level security in different scenarios
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : The Label Security Toolkit provides tools and techniques for using Microsoft® SQL Server (versions 2005 through 2012) to implement row-level security (RLS) and cell-level security (CLS) based on security labels.

A)
USER_NAME()
B)
CUSER_NAME()
C)
CUURENT_USER()
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   None of the above


Explanation : All of the specified functions will return user name.

A)
EXEC
B)
EXECUTE
C)
READ
D)
WRITE

Correct Answer :   EXECUTE


Explanation : Users can only access data through the stored procedures provided.

222 .
Which of the field must be 1 using an authenticator in the following code?
EncryptByKey ( key_GUID , { 'cleartext' | @cleartext }
    [, { add_authenticator | @add_authenticator }
     , { authenticator | @authenticator } ] )
A)
@add_authenticator
B)
@cleartext
C)
key_GUID
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   @add_authenticator


Explaination : add_authenticator indicates whether an authenticator will be encrypted together with the cleartext.

A)
Page
B)
Row
C)
Domain
D)
Column

Correct Answer :   Page


Explanation : Performing the encryption at the page level enables the encryption process to be completely transparent to the client applications.

A)
DMVs
B)
sys.certificate
C)
sys.certificates
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   sys.certificates


Explanation : To find out what is signed by the certificate, you can use the sys.certificates.

A)
Column-level Encryption
B)
BitLocker
C)
Transparent Data Encryption
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Column-level Encryption


Explanation : To use cell-level encryption, the schema must be changed to varbinary, then reconverted to the desired data type.

A)
DECRYPTBYSYMKEY
B)
DECRYPTBYASYMKEY
C)
DECRYPTBYKEYAUTOCERT
D)
DECRYPTBYKEYAUTOASYMKEY

Correct Answer :   DECRYPTBYKEYAUTOASYMKEY


Explanation : DECRYPTBYKEYAUTOASYMKEY, which decrypts data by using a symmetric key that’s automatically decrypted with an asymmetric key.

A)
Idera
B)
ApexSQL
C)
SQL Ninja
D)
SQL Audit

Correct Answer :   ApexSQL


Explanation : ApexSQL Audit is a tool for auditing SQL Server data changes specifically for Microsoft SQL Server.

A)
Audit Name
B)
Object Name
C)
Audit Action Type
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Object Name


Explanation : Object Name is the name of the object to audit.It does not apply to audit groups.

A)
Fail
B)
Break
C)
Continue
D)
Shut down

Correct Answer :   Continue


Explanation : Select Continue option when continuing the operation of the Database Engine is more important than maintaining a complete audit. This is the default selection.

A)
auditpol /set /subcategory:”application generated” /success:enable /failure:enable
B)
polaudit /set /subcategory:”application generated” /success:enable /failure:enable
C)
auditenable /set /subcategory:”application generated” /success:enable /failure:enable
D)
auditpolenable /set /subcategory:”application generated” /success:enable /failure:enable

Correct Answer :   auditpol /set /subcategory:”application generated” /success:enable /failure:enable


Explanation : auditpol is command is new to Windows Server 2008 and Vista and is required for querying or configuring audit policy at the subcategory level.

A)
Finding and diagnosing slow-running queries
B)
Correlating performance counters to diagnose problems
C)
Capturing the series of Transact-SQL statements that lead to a problem
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : Microsoft SQL Server Profiler is a graphical user interface to SQL Trace for monitoring an instance of the Database Engine or Analysis Services.

A)
Lock:Blocked
B)
Audit Password
C)
SQL:BatchCompleted
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   SQL:BatchCompleted


Explanation : The event class contains all of the data that can be reported by an event.

A)
SHUTDOWN_ON_ERROR
B)
TRACE_FILE_ROLLOVER
C)
TRACE_PRODUCE_BLACKBOX
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   TRACE_FILE_ROLLOVER


Explanation : As more rollover trace files are created, the integer value appended to the file name increases sequentially.

A)
N’%SQLDIR%\MSSQL\DATA\box.trc
B)
N’%SQLDIR%\MSSQL\DATA\black.trc
C)
N’%SQLDIR%\MSSQL\DATA\blackbox.trc
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   N’%SQLDIR%\MSSQL\DATA\blackbox.trc


Explanation : The default file_count is 2 but can be overridden by the user using filecount option.

A)
ErrorLog
B)
Lock:Cancel
C)
DTCTransaction
D)
SQL:BatchStarting

Correct Answer :   SQL:BatchStarting


Explanation : SQL:BatchStarting occurs when a Transact-SQL batch has started.

A)
sys.dm_os_wait_stats
B)
sys.dm_os_states
C)
sys.dm_os_wait_states
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   sys.dm_os_wait_stats


Explanation : sys.dm_os_wait_stats returns information about all the waits encountered by threads that executed.

A)
DBCC SQLP (‘sys.dm_os_wait_stats’, CLEAR);
B)
DBCC SQLPERF (‘sys.dm_os_wait_stats’, CLEAR);
C)
DBCC PERF (‘sys.dm_os_wait_stats’, CLEAR);
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   DBCC SQLPERF (‘sys.dm_os_wait_stats’, CLEAR);


Explanation : DBCC SQLPERFcommand resets all counters to 0.

A)
Lock
B)
Queue
C)
Resource
D)
External

Correct Answer :   Resource


Explanation : Examples of resource waits are locks, latches, network and disk I/O waits. Lock and latch waits are waits on synchronization objects.

A)
ASYNC_NETWORK_IO
B)
AUDIT_LOGINCACHE_LOCK
C)
AUDIT_XE_SESSION_MGR
D)
AUDIT_ON_DEMAND_TARGET_LOCK

Correct Answer :   ASYNC_NETWORK_IO


Explanation : AUDIT_XE_SESSION_MGR occurs when there is a wait on a lock that is used to synchronize the starting and stopping of audit related Extended Events sessions.

A)
When the Service Broker transmitter is waiting for work
B)
When the Service Broker queue task handler tries to shut down the task
C)
When the Service Broker lazy flusher flushes the in-memory transmission objects to a work table
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   When the Service Broker lazy flusher flushes the in-memory transmission objects to a work table


Explanation : BROKER_SHUTDOWN tries to shut down the task.

A)
ASYNC_NETWORK_IO
B)
AUDIT_XE_SESSION_MGR
C)
AUDIT_LOGINCACHE_LOCK
D)
HADR_DBR_SUBSCRIBER_FILTER_LIST

Correct Answer :   HADR_DBR_SUBSCRIBER_FILTER_LIST


Explanation : The publisher for an availability replica event (such as a state change or configuration change) is waiting for exclusive read/write access to the list of event subscribers that correspond to availability databases.

A)
HADR_WORK_POOL
B)
HADR_WORK_QUEUE
C)
HADR_XRF_STACK_ACCESS
D)
LCK_M_U_ABORT_BLOCKERS

Correct Answer :   LCK_M_U_ABORT_BLOCKERS


Explanation : LCK_M_U_ABORT_BLOCKERS occurs when a task is waiting to acquire an Update lock with Abort Blockers.

A)
msdb
B)
tempdb
C)
model
D)
master

Correct Answer :   tempdb


Explanation : It is required to create or rebuild an index when tempdb is on a set of disks different from that of the user database.

A)
An xml data type can only be a key column only in an XML index
B)
Examine column which have composite primary keys
C)
Keep the length of the index key short for non clustered indexes
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   An xml data type can only be a key column only in an XML index


Explanation : QL Server 2012 SP1 introduces a new type of XML index known as a Selective XML Index. This new index can improve querying performance over data stored as XML in SQL Server, allow for much faster indexing of large XML data workloads.

A)
same
B)
different
C)
may be same or different
D)
none of the above

Correct Answer :   same


Explanation : A nonpartitioned clustered index and the base table always reside in the same filegroup.

A)
FULL TEXT
B)
NON CLUSTERED
C)
CLUSTERED
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   CLUSTERED


Explanation : Clustered indexes sort and store the data rows in the table based on their key values.

A)
ALLOW_COLUMN_LOCKS
B)
ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS
C)
STATISTICS_RECOMPUTE
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS


Explanation : ALTER INDEX statement requires ALTER permission on the table or view.

A)
TID
B)
PID
C)
SID
D)
RID

Correct Answer :   RID


Explanation : RID stands for Row identifier and is used to lock a single row within a table.

A)
Shared locks
B)
Update locks
C)
Exclusive Locks
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Shared locks


Explanation : Shared (S) locks on a resource are released as soon as the data has been read.

A)
Snapshot
B)
Repeatable Read
C)
Read Committed
D)
SERIALIZABLE

Correct Answer :   SERIALIZABLE


Explanation : When SERIALIZABLE isolation level is set – a range lock is placed on the data set, preventing other users from updating or inserting rows into the data set until the transaction is complete.

A)
Bulk update
B)
Bulk copy
C)
Bulk import
D)
Bulk export

Correct Answer :   Bulk update


Explanation : Bulk update (BU) locks are used when bulk copying data into a table and either the TABLOCK hint is specified.

A)
PAGLOCK
B)
READUNCOMMITTED
C)
SERIALIZABLE
D)
READCOMMITTED

Correct Answer :   READUNCOMMITTED


Explanation : Do not issue shared locks and do not honor exclusive locks.

A)
IS
B)
IX
C)
SIX
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   SIX


Explanation : SIX stands for Shared with intent exclusive and can modify some (but not all) resources lower in the hierarchy by placing IX locks on those individual resources.

A)
RangeI_N
B)
RangeX_X
C)
RangeS_S
D)
RangeS_U

Correct Answer :   RangeX_X


Explanation : RangeX-X locks are exclusive resource locks acquired on Index key values from a specific range when the transaction modifies a key value from the Index.

A)
Use clustered indexes on less-usage tables
B)
Use non-clustered indexes on high-usage tables
C)
Make sure that CREATE and DROP statements use an existing index
D)
Use clustered indexes on high-usage tables

Correct Answer :   Use clustered indexes on high-usage tables


Explanation : Clustered index should be created on frequently used tables.

A)
Block
B)
Lock
C)
Deadlock
D)
Exclusive lock

Correct Answer :   Block


Explanation : Lock is done by database when any connection access the same piece of data concurrently and another is demanding for it.

A)
2
B)
3
C)
4
D)
5

Correct Answer :   2


Explanation : An XML deadlock graph has two main sections: Processes section and Resources section.

A)
WAIT stats
B)
Processes
C)
Resources
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Resources


Explanation : Resources section lists all the resources that were involved in the deadlock, which locks each process acquired and which locks they requested.

A)
Reader
B)
Writer
C)
Reader-Writer
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Reader-Writer


Explanation : When you look at the resources involved, you’ll see that the signature of this form of deadlock is locked that are all either a shared (S) lock granted and an exclusive (X) lock requested or an X lock granted and an S lock requested.

A)
Capturing SQL Server Deadlock Information in XML Format
B)
Optimistic Locking in SQL Server using the ROWVERSION
C)
Processing Data Queues in SQL Server with READPAST and UPDLOCK
D)
Avoid using NOLOCK on SQL Server UPDATE and DELETE statements

Correct Answer :   Optimistic Locking in SQL Server using the ROWVERSION


Explanation : Implementing optimistic locking utilizing the row version data type is an effective, low overhead way to prevent lost updates while still maintaining application concurrency.

A)
1000
B)
2000
C)
10000
D)
15000

Correct Answer :   15000


Explanation : In versions earlier than SQL Server 2012, the number of partitions was limited to 1,000 by default

A)
Partition function
B)
Partition column
C)
Partition scheme
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Partition function


Explanation : Partition function defines the number of partitions that the table will have and how the boundaries of the partitions are defined.

A)
2 GB
B)
4 GB
C)
8 GB
D)
16 GB

Correct Answer :   16 GB


Explanation : Systems with 16 GB of RAM that run many memory-intensive processes may run out of memory on operations that run on a large number of partitions.

A)
DDL
B)
TCL
C)
DBCC
D)
DML

Correct Answer :   DBCC


Explanation : The Transact-SQL programming language provides DBCC statements that act as Database Console Commands for SQL Server.

A)
run time
B)
compile-time
C)
Both compile-time and run-time
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Both compile-time and run-time


Explanation : Execution plans now provide an optional Partitioned attribute that indicates that an operator, such as a seek, scan, insert, update, merge, or delete, is performed on a partitioned table.

A)
lock
B)
parallel
C)
distributed
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   parallel


Explanation : As part of the execution strategy, the query processor determines the table partitions required for the query and the proportion of threads to allocate to each partition.

A)
CPU
B)
Memory
C)
Physical IO
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   None of the above


Explanation : SQL Server Resource Governor is a feature than you can use to manage SQL Server workload and system resource consumption.

A)
ALTER RESOURCE GOVERNOR
B)
ALTER GOVERNOR
C)
ALTER RESOURCE
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   ALTER RESOURCE GOVERNOR


Explanation : You can enable the Resource Governor by using either SQL Server Management Studio or Transact-SQL.

A)
SELECT
B)
SERVER
C)
CONTROL
D)
CONTROL SERVER

Correct Answer :   CONTROL SERVER


Explanation : The classifier function is run for new connections so that their workloads can be assigned to workload groups.

A)
ALTER RESOURCE RECONFIGURE;
B)
ALTER RESOURCE GOVERNOR CONFIGURE;
C)
ALTER RESOURCE GOVERNOR RECONFIGURE;
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   ALTER RESOURCE GOVERNOR RECONFIGURE;


Explanation : The Resource Governor is turned off by default.

A)
MIN_CPU_PERCENT
B)
CAP_CPU_PERCENT
C)
MAX_CPU_PERCENT
D)
MAX_MEMORY_PERCENT

Correct Answer :   CAP_CPU_PERCENT


Explanation : Workloads associated with the pool can use CPU capacity above the value of MAX_CPU_PERCENT if it is available, but not above the value of CAP_CPU_PERCENT.

A)
AFFINITY
B)
MAX_CPU_PERCENT
C)
MAX_IOPS_PER_VOLUME
D)
MAX_MEMORY_PERCENT

Correct Answer :   AFFINITY


Explanation : By using the AFFINITY option the Sales and Marketing workloads can be scheduled on different CPUs.

A)
min(X,Y)
B)
max(X,Y)
C)
100 – sum(MIN %)
D)
Effective MAX % – MIN %

Correct Answer :   min(X,Y)


Explanation : The minimum of the configured MAX value of a pool and the sum of the MIN values of other pools is subtracted from 100 percent.

A)
OLAP
B)
Data mining
C)
Decision support
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : Business intelligence (BI) is a broad category of application programs and technologies for gathering, storing, analyzing, and providing access to data from various data sources.

A)
Ranks customers and locations based on probability
B)
Rank customers and locations based on profitability
C)
Distinguish the products and services that drive revenues
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above


Explanation : SQL Server Business Intelligence delivers a comprehensive platform empowering organizations to build and deploy secure, scalable and manageable BI apps.

A)
Data Cube
B)
Dashboard
C)
Balanced Scorecard
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Balanced Scorecard


Explanation : The balanced scorecard (BSC) is a strategy performance management tool – a semi-standard structured report, supported by design methods and automation.

A)
ETL
B)
Data staging
C)
Data integration
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Data staging


Explanation : In computing, Extract, Transform and Load (ETL) refers to a process in database usage and especially in data warehousing

A)
MIS
B)
Data warehouse
C)
EIS
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   EIS


Explanation : EIS stands for Enterprise Information System.

A)
OBIEE
B)
SSIS
C)
SSAS
D)
SSRS

Correct Answer :   OBIEE


Explanation : Oracle Business Intelligence Enterprise Edition Plus, also termed OBI EE Plus, is Oracle Corporation’s set of business intelligence tools.

A)
server
B)
user
C)
database
D)
none of the above

Correct Answer :   server


Explanation : Members of this role have access to all Analysis Services databases and objects on an instance of Analysis Services.

A)
Client
B)
Database
C)
Server
D)
Membership

Correct Answer :   Database


Explanation : An Analysis Services database role defines user access to objects and data in an Analysis Services database.

A)
Synonym
B)
Aggregate
C)
Both (A) and (B)
D)
Assemblies

Correct Answer :   Assemblies


Explanation : Assemblies let you extend the business functionality of MDX and DMX.

A)
Anonymous
B)
ImpersonateAnon
C)
ImpersonateAnonymous
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   ImpersonateAnonymous


Explanation : The default setting, ImpersonateCurrentUser, runs an assembly under the current user’s network login account.

A)
Permission
B)
PermissionSet
C)
SetPermissionSet
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   PermissionSet


Explanation : You can use stored procedures to call external routines from Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Analysis Services(SSAS).

A)
CALCULATE
B)
CALC
C)
SCOPE CALC
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   CALCULATE


Explanation : In Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services, a Multidimensional Expressions (MDX) script is made up of one or more MDX expressions or statements that populate a cube with calculations.

A)
Ignore
B)
IgnoreNone
C)
IgnoreAll
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   IgnoreNone


Explanation : Error handling is done through the ScriptErrorHandlingMode enumerator.

A)
CREATE CELL CALC
B)
CREATE MEMBER CALCULATION
C)
CREATE CELL CALCULATION
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   CREATE CELL CALCULATION


Explanation : CREATE CELL CALCULATION statement creates a calculated cell formula for a specified set of tuples within a cube.

A)
CREATE
B)
DROP CUBE
C)
CREATE CUBE
D)
CREATE ACTION

Correct Answer :   CREATE ACTION


Explanation : Creates an action that can be associated with a cube, dimension, hierarchy, or subordinate object.

A)
REFRESH CUBECube_Name
B)
REFRESH CUBE Cube_Name
C)
REFRESH CUBE “Cube_Name”
D)
REFRESH CUBE \Cube_Name\

Correct Answer :   REFRESH CUBECube_Name


Explanation : REFRESH CUBECube_Name refreshes the client’s cache for a cube.

A)
Report Builder
B)
Power View
C)
Report Designer
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Power View


Explanation : Power view gives interactive data exploration and visual presentation experience designed to let you create and interact with reports based on Analysis Services tabular models.

A)
SSMS
B)
SQL Server Configuration Manager
C)
Reporting Services Configuration Manager
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   None of the above


Explanation : Reporting Services Configuration Manager is used to configure a Reporting Services installation.

A)
Rsconfig Utility
B)
Rskeymgmt Utility
C)
Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) Classes
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Rsconfig Utility


Explanation : You can also use it to specify a user account to use for unattended report processing.

A)
Rskeymgmt Utility
B)
Configuration manager
C)
Report Server Web service URL
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Report Server Web service URL


Explanation : Use Report Server Web service URL tool to browse content in the report catalog in a generic item navigation page.

A)
Connection string
B)
Data connections
C)
Data source definition
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Data connections


Explanation : A data connection includes a name and connection properties that are dependent on the connection type.

A)
Data alert
B)
Connection string
C)
Shared data source
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Data alert


Explanation : A data alert definition includes which data to use from existing report data feeds, the conditions to be met, a schedule.

A)
Subreport
B)
Drilldown report
C)
Drillthrough report
D)
Linked report

Correct Answer :   Linked report


Explanation : Linked reports include security, parameters, location, subscriptions, and schedules.

A)
511 Mb
B)
611 Mb
C)
711 Mb
D)
811 Mb

Correct Answer :   711 Mb


Explanation : SQL Server 2008 R2 can run on both 32-bit and 64-bit systems.

A)
SSIS
B)
SSAS
C)
SSRS
D)
Client components

Correct Answer :   Client components


Explanation : Client components does not include SSIS tools.

A)
Support for up to 256 logical CPUs
B)
Support for 32-bit and 64-bit processors
C)
StreamInsight Premium real-time event processing
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Support for 32-bit and 64-bit processors


Explanation : SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter provides the complete feature set available in SQL Server 2008.

A)
In memory database
B)
Hot-add CPU
C)
Hot-add RAM
D)
Database partitioning

Correct Answer :   In memory database


Explanation : In-memory database capability is provided by 2012.

A)
Maximum: 128MB
B)
Maximum:252 MB
C)
Minimum: 512 MB
D)
Minimum:1 GB

Correct Answer :   Minimum:512 MB


Explanation : Recommended RAM is 2.048 GB or more for SQL Server 2008.

A)
1.4 GHz
B)
2.4 GHz
C)
3.4 GHz
D)
4.4 GHz

Correct Answer :   1.4 GHz


Explanation : Recommended speed is 2.0 GHz or faster.

A)
Windows Server 2003 SP2 64-bit x64 Standard
B)
Windows Server 2003 SP2 64-bit x64 Enterprise
C)
Windows Server 2003 SP2 64-bit x64 Datacenter
D)
Windows Server 2003 R2 SP2 64-bit Itanium Datacenter

Correct Answer :   Windows Server 2003 R2 SP2 64-bit Itanium Datacenter


Explanation : SQL Server 2008 R2 Enterprise is designed for large, highly scalable enterprise implementations.

A)
Named Pipes
B)
Shared Memory
C)
Microsoft Windows Installer 4.5
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Shared Memory


Explanation : All the x86 and x64 editions of SQL Server, except the SQL Server Express versions.

A)
Master
B)
Tempdb
C)
Northwind
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Northwind

A)
Msdb
B)
Master
C)
Tempdb
D)
Northwind

Correct Answer :   Tempdb


Explanation : Tempdb is a global resource; the temporary tables and stored procedures for all users connected to the system are stored there.

A)
Master
B)
Model
C)
Msdb
D)
Tempdb

Correct Answer :   Master


Explanation : Master database includes information about the file locations of the user databases, as well as logon accounts, server configuration settings, and a number of other items such as linked servers and startup stored procedures.

A)
Pubs
B)
Msdb
C)
Model
D)
Tempdb

Correct Answer :   Msdb


Explanation : The msdb database is used by SQL Server Agent for scheduling alerts and jobs, and recording operators.

A)
Master
B)
Tempdb
C)
Northwind
D)
Model

Correct Answer :   Model


Explanation :  When a CREATE DATABASE statement is issued, the first part of the database is created by copying in the contents of the model database.

A)
Msdb
B)
Model
C)
Master
D)
Tempdb

Correct Answer :   Master


Explanation : The master database records all of the system level information for a SQL Server system.