Union Public Service Commission(UPSC) Previous Years Questions and Answers

1 .

Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India :

1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A)

Only one

B)

Only two

C)

Only three

D)

All four

Correct Answer : Option (A) - Only one

Note : * The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of electoral college consisting of: 1. the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament; 2. the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states; and 3. the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry1. Thus, the nominated members of both of Houses of Parliament, the nominated members of the state legislative assemblies, the members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative councils (in case of the bicameral legislature) and the nominated members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the election of the President. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

* Is the value of vote of each elector the same?

* Answer: No. The value of votes of MLAs would differ from State to State as the value of each such vote is calculated by the process explained below. However, the value of votes of all MPs is the same. Statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

* Ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry = 471707/30 = 15,723.56.

* Ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Arunachal Pradesh = 467511/60 = 7,791.85.

* The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Year : 2023

Category : General Studies

2 .

Consider the following statements :

1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A)

1 only

B)

2 only

C)

Both 1 and 2

D)

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : Option (C) - Both 1 and 2

Note : * Biodiversity Governance in India: India’s Biological Diversity Act 2002 (BD Act), is in close synergy with the Nagoya Protocol and aims to implement provisions of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).

* The Nagoya Protocol sought to ensure commercial and research utilisation of genetic resources led to sharing its benefits with the government and the community that conserved such resources.

* Under Section 41(1) of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, every local body in the State shall constitute a Biodiversity Management Committee within its area of jurisdiction. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

* The main function of the BMC is to prepare People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) in consultation with local people. The BMC shall be responsible for ensuring the protection of the knowledge recorded in PBR, especially to regulate its access to outside persons and agencies.

* In addition to preparation of the People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR), the BMCs in their respective jurisdiction shall also be responsible for the following :-

* Conservation, sustainable use and access and benefit sharing of biological resources.

* Regulation of access to the biological resources and/ or associated Traditional Knowledge, for commercial and research purposes.

* The BMC shall also maintain a Register giving information about the details of the access to biological resources and traditional knowledge granted, details of the collection fee imposed and details of the benefits derived and the mode of their sharing from area within its jurisdiction.

* The BMC may levy charges by way of collection fees from any person for accessing or collecting any biological resource for commercial purposes from areas falling within its territorial jurisdiction. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Year : 2023

Category : General Studies

3 .

Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

A)

Angola

B)

Costa Rica

C)

Ecuador

D)

Somalia

Correct Answer : Somalia

Note : * The country that has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine in Somalia.

* Somalia has been affected by a prolonged drought, conflict, displacement and insecurity, resulting in acute food insecurity and malnutrition for millions of people.

* In 2021, Somalia faced its worst desert locust infestation in 25 years, which further threatened food security and livelihoods.

* The report also mentions other countries facing food crises, such as Ethiopia, South Sudan, Yemen, Afghanistan and Syria.

Year : 2023

Category : General Studies

4 .

Consider the following statements :

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statement are correct?

A)

Only one

B)

Only two

C)

All three

D)

None

Correct Answer : Option (B) - Only two

Note : * As per Article 355, it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

* Article 22 (1) of the Constitution, for example, guarantees the right to legal counsel, but Article 22 (3) (b) strips this right from persons arrested or detained under preventive detention law. Relying on these provisions, the Supreme Court stated, in A.K. Roy v. Union of India, that detainees do not have the right to legal representation or cross-examination in Advisory Board hearings. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

* The Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act, 1987 and the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 (commonly known as TADA and POTA respectively) had made provisions to admit the confessions made by the accused before the police authorities. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

* The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides that confession made before police authority or under police custody is inadmissible.

Year : 2023

Category : General Studies

5 .

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : According to the United Nations ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’. India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement-II : India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world's population living in its territory.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A)

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B)

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C)

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D)

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Correct Answer : Option (C) - Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Note : India is the largest user of groundwater in the world. It uses an estimated 230 cubic kilometers of groundwater per year - over a quarter of the global total. World Bank

More than 60% of irrigated agriculture and 85% of drinking water supplies are dependent on groundwater. Urban residents increasingly rely on groundwater due to unreliable and inadequate municipal water supplies (Because 89% of Groundwater is used for irrigation purposes). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

From the ‘above’ with ‘below’ figure India extract approx half of global groundwater. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Year : 2023

Category : General Studies

6 .

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II : Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A)

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B)

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

C)

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D)

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Correct Answer : Option (B) - Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Note : * The Ayushman Bharat - Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs) were launched under the Ayushman Bharat Programme in a bid to move away from selective health care to a more comprehensive range of services spanning preventive, promotive, curative, rehabilitative and palliative care for all ages. Hence, statement-I is correct.

* Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the states are primarily responsible for organizing health services, since public health is a subject under the State list of 7th Schedule. Hence, statement-II is correct.

* However, Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Year : 2023

Category : General Studies

7 .

Consider the following statements :

1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A)

Only one

B)

Only two

C)

All three

D)

None

Correct Answer : Option (B) - Only two

Note : * Self-Help Group or in-short SHG is now a well-known concept. It is now almost two decade old. It is reported that the SHGs have a role in hastening country’s economic development. SHGs have now evolved as a movement. We can trace the origin of the concept of SHGs in Bangladesh (Dr. Mehmud Yunus). India has adopted the Bangladesh’s model in a modified form.

* In 1970, Ilaben Bhat, founder member of ‘SEWA’(Self Employed Women’s Association) in Ahmadabad, had developed a concept of ‘women and micro-finance’. The Annapurna Mahila Mandal’ in Maharashtra and ‘Working Women’s Forum’ in Tamilnadu and many National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)- sponsored groups have followed the path laid down by ‘SEWA’.

* In 1991-92 NABARD started promoting self-help groups on a large scale. And it was the real take-off point for the ‘SHG movement’. In 1993, the Reserve Bank of India also allowed SHGs to open saving accounts in banks. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

* Such groups work as a collective guarantee system formembers who propose to borrow from organised sources. The poor collect their savings and save it in banks. In return they receive easy access to loans with a small rate of interest to start their micro unit enterprise. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Table 2 : Pattern of Partnership

Number of Participating Banks

Number of Branches of Banks Lending to SHGs

Commercial Banks

Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)

Co-operatives

Number of Participating NGO and other Agencies

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Year : 2023

Category : General Studies

8 .

In the context of finance, the term 'beta' refers to

A)

the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms

B)

an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward

C)

a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible

D)

a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market.

Correct Answer : a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market.

Note : * In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to a measure of how an individual asset moves (on average) when the overall stock market increases or decreases. It is used as a measure of risk and is an integral part of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). A company with a higher beta has greater risk and also greater expected returns. The beta coefficient can be interpreted as follows:

* β =1 exactly as volatile as the market

* β >1 more volatile than the market

* β <1>0 less volatile than the market

* β =0 uncorrelated to the market

* β <0 negatively correlated to the market2

* The beta coefficient can be calculated by dividing the product of the covariance of the security’s returns and the market’s returns by the variance of the market’s returns over a specified period

* A type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible is called basis risk.

* An investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward is called asset allocation.

* The process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms, exchanges or locations to cash in on the price difference is called arbitrage.

* A numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market is called beta. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Year : 2023

Category : General Studies

9 .

With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements :

1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A)

1 only

B)

2 only

C)

Both 1 and 2

D)

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : Option (C) - Both 1 and 2

Note : * Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) is a digital form of currency notes issued by a central bank. Here payments in a digital currency are without using the US dollar or SWIFT system. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
* CBDC can be classified into two broad types viz. general purpose or retail (CBDC-R) and wholesale (CBDC-W).

* Retail CBDC would be potentially available for use by all viz. private sector, non-financial consumers and businesses while wholesale CBDC is designed for restricted access to select financial institutions.

* While Wholesale CBDC is intended for the settlement of interbank transfers and related wholesale transactions, Retail CBDC is an electronic version of cash primarily meant for retail transactions.

* Programmability: One interesting application of CBDC is the technical possibility of programmability. CBDCs have the possibility of programming the money by tying the end use. For example, agriculture credit by banks can be programmed to ensure that it is used only at input store outlets.

* However, the programmability feature of CBDC needs to be carefully examined in order to retain the essential features of a currency. It can also have other implications for monetary policy transmission as tokens may have an expiry date, by which they would need to be spent, thus ensuring consumption. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

* The programmability of tokens can be achieved using the following :

* Smart contracts : Business rules are stored as code that is executed during transactions to verify that the token is being used correctly.

* Token version: The version of the token can be tightly linked to the technical code class. The alternative is that the version is stored as a token data field.

Year : 2023

Category : General Studies

10 .

Consider the following statements with reference to India :

1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between ? 15 crore and ? 25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A)

1 only

B)

2 only

C)

Both 1 and 2

D)

Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : Option (B) - 2 only

Note : * The new definition and criterion of MSMEs will come into effect from 1st July, 2020.
* The definition of Micro manufacturing and services units was increased to Rs. 1 Crore of investment and Rs. 5 Crore of turnover.
* The limit of small unit was increased to Rs. 10 Crore of investment and Rs 50 Crore of turnover.
* For medium Enterprises, now it will be Rs. 50 Crore of investment and Rs. 250 Crore of turnover. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.

Further Revised MSME Classification (Announced by Union Minister Prakash Javdekar
Composite Criteria : Investment and Annual Turnover
Classification	Micro	Small	Medium
Manufracturing & Services	Investment < Rs. 1 Cr. and Turnover < Rs. 5 Cr.	Investment < Rs. 10 Cr. and Turnover < Rs. 50 Cr.	Investment < Rs. 50 Cr. and Turnover < Rs. 250 Cr.

* Priority Sector Lending Guidelines: In terms of Master Direction on ‘Priority Sector Lending (PSL) – Targets and Classification’ dated September 4, 2020, all bank loans to MSMEs conforming to the conditions prescribed therein qualify for classification under priority sector lending.

* Bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (for both manufacturing and service sectors) engaged in providing or rendering of services and defined in terms of investment in equipment under MSMED Act, 2006, irrespective of loan limits, are eligible for classification under priority sector, w.e.f. March 1, 2018. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Year : 2023

Category : General Studies

UPSC Previous Years (Prelims & Mains) Questions