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UPSC Previous Years (Prelims & Mains) Questions
1 .
With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the south-western Indian Ocean during January — March.
  2. OMT collected during January — March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
Both 1 and 2
D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : Option (B) - 2 only

Note :

• Sea surface temperature (SST) is routinely used for predicting whether the total amount of rainfall that India receives during the monsoon season will be less or more than the long-term mean of 887.5 mm.

• Now, scientists from Pune’s Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) find that Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT) has better ability to predict this than the Sea Surface Temperature. Compared with SST which has 60% success rate of predicting the Indian summer monsoon, OMT has 80% success rate.

• OMT is analysed by measuring the ocean thermal energy during the period from January to March. Using OMT data, scientists are able to predict with 80% probability the monsoon of any year. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• SST is restricted to a few millimetres of the top ocean layer, whereas OMT which is measured up to a depth of 26 degree C isotherm, is more stable and consistent, and the spatial spread is also less. The 26 degree C isotherm is seen at depths varying from 50–100 metres. During January–March, the mean 26 degree C isotherm depth in the Southwestern Indian Ocean is 59 metres. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Year : 2020
Category : General Studies
2 .
With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements :

  1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government.
  2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas.
  3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for Phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
B)
2 and 3 only
C)
2 only
D)
1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : Option (B) - 2 and 3 only

Note : The Government of India subsidizes fertilizers to ensure that fertilizers are easily available to farmers and the country remains self-sufficient in agriculture. The same has been achieved largely by controlling the price of fertilizer and the amount of production. The urea is being provided to the farmers at a statutorily notified Maximum Retail Price (MRP). Under the NBS Policy, the Government announces a fixed rate of subsidy (in Rs. per Kg basis), on each nutrient of subsidized fertilizers, namely Nitrogen (N), Phosphate (P), Potash (K) and Sulphur (S), on annual basis. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

 
Synthetic ammonia (NH3) refers to ammonia that has been synthesized (Standard Industrial Classification 2873) from natural gas. Natural gas molecules are reduced to carbon and hydrogen. The hydrogen is then purified and reacted with nitrogen to produce ammonia. Approximately 75 percent of the ammonia produced is used as fertilizer, either directly as ammonia or indirectly after synthesis as urea, ammonium nitrate, and mono-ammonium or diammonium phosphates. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
 
Sulphur is a major by-product of oil refining and gas processing. Most crude oil grades contain some sulphur, most of which must be removed during the refining process to meet strict sulphur content limits in refined products. This is typically done through hydrotreating and results in production of H2S gas, which is converted into elemental sulphur in the sulphur recovery unit. The resultant elemental sulphur is in a molten state and can either be sold as a heated liquid or (more commonly) converted to solid form as blocks or pellets. Most of the sulphur produced by refineries is sold into the petrochemicals market where it is used to make sulfuric acid. Commercial phosphoric acid is produced by applying an excess of sulphuric acid to ground rock phosphate. This phosphoric acid is usually applied to an additional amount of phosphate rock to make concentrated superphosphate. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Year : 2020
Category : General Studies
3 .
With reference to India's Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct?

  1. It is spread over two districts.
  2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
  3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A)
1 and 2 only
B)
2 and 3 only
C)
1 and 3 only
D)
1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : Option (C) - 1 and 3 only

Note :

• The Thar Desert or the Desert National Park (DNP) in north-western India is a unique and the only habitat of its type in the Indian subcontinent.

• The Aravalli hills mark the eastern-most boundary limit of the Thar desert while the western limit is defined by the fertile plains of the Indus. The Great Rann of Kutch forms a sharp boundary in the south while its northern limits are formed by the riparian sub-Himalayan plains.

• The Desert National Park (DNP) covers an area of 3162 km² of which 1900 km² is in Jaisalmer district and remaining 1262 km² is in Barmer district of Rajasthan State. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Thar desert is the most thickly populated desert in the world with an average density of 83 persons/km² (compared to 7km² of other deserts). However, the human population within the DNP is low (4-5 persons per km²). There are 73 villages and also settlements or Dhanis existing within the Park. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• The area falls in the extreme hot and arid region of very low rainfall zone (<100mm) of the country. DNP was gazetted in the year 1980.

• DNP is a home to Great Indian Bustard (locally called Godawan) along with more than 100 species of birds. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Year : 2020
Category : General Studies
A)
East of Aksai Chin
B)
East of Leh
C)
North of Gilgit
D)
North of Nubra Valley

Correct Answer : Option (D) - North of Nubra Valley

Note :

Siachen Glacier is one of the world’s longest mountain glaciers, lying in the Karakoram Range system of Kashmir near the India–Pakistan border, extending for 70 km from north-northwest to south-southeast.
 
It is the source for the 50-mi-long Nubra River, a tributary of the Shyok, which is part of the Indus River system. Siachen Glacier lies to the north of the Nubra valley. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Year : 2020
Category : General Studies
5 .
With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs :
Famous Place   Present State
Bhilsa : Madhya Pradesh
Dwarasamudra : Maharashtra
Girinagar : Gujarat
Sthanesvara : Uttar Pradesh
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A)
1 and 3 only
B)
1 and 4 only
C)
2 and 3 only
D)
2 and 4 only

Correct Answer : Option (A) - 1 and 3 only

Note :

Vidisha (formerly known as Bhilsa) is a city in the state of Madhya Pradesh, India. It is a an archaeologically important site known for inscriptions regarding the ancient history of India. As a general of Sultan Jalaluddin, Alauddin Khalji raided the Paramara city of Bhilsa in 1293 CE. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

Halebidu (which used to be called Dwarasamudra) was the regal capital of the Hoysala Empire in the 12th century. It is located in Hassan District of Karnataka. In late 1310, the Delhi Sultanate ruler Alauddin Khalji sent his general Malik Kafur on an expedition to the southernmost regions of India. In 1311, Malik Kafur besieged the Hoysala capital Dwarasamudra, and the defending ruler Veera Ballala III surrendered without much resistance. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.

Girnar or Girinagar is a group of mountains in the Junagadh District of Gujarat. This place is sacred to the Jains because it is the place where Lord Niminatha (22nd Jain Tirtankar) went to attain salvation. It is also known for Ashoka's Major Rock Edicts XIV, dating to circa 250 BCE. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Sthanesvara site is located at modern-day Thanesar in Kurukshetra district of Haryana. It is a historic town and an important Hindu pilgrimage centre on the banks of the Saraswati River. It was also sacked and many of its temples were destroyed by Mahmud of Ghazni. Hence, pair 4 is not correctly matched.

Year : 2020
Category : General Studies
6 .
Consider the following statements :

  1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
  2. CGWA was’ formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
  3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
B)
2 and 3 only
C)
2 only
D)
1 and 3 only

Correct Answer : Option (B) - 2 and 3 only

Note :

Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of ground water resources in the country. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

India's irrigation is mostly groundwater well based. At 39 million hectares (67% of its total irrigation), India has the world's largest groundwater well equipped irrigation system (China with 19 mha is second, USA with 17 mha is third). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

According to National Compilation of Groundwater Resource of India 2017, the average stage of ground water extraction for the country as a whole works out to be about 63 %. The extraction of ground water for various uses in different parts of the country is not uniform.

Out of the total 6881 assessment units (Blocks/ Mandals/ Talukas/Firkas) in the country, 1186 units in various States (17%) have been categorized as ‘Over-Exploited’ indicating ground water extraction exceeding the annually replenishable ground water recharge. In these areas the percentage of ground water extraction is more than 100 percent.

In addition, 313 units (5%) are ‘Critical’, where the stage of ground water extraction is between 90-100 %. There are 972 semi-critical units (14%), where the stage of ground water extraction is between 70% and 90% and 4310 assessment units (63%) have been categorized as ‘Safe‘, where the stage of Ground water extraction is less than 70 %. Apart from this, there are 100 assessment units (1%), which have been categorized, as ‘Saline’ as major part of the ground water in phreatic aquifers is brackish or saline.

In January 2020, NGT had ordered the Centre to put on hold its new norms on groundwater use. About 20,000 applications are pending before the CGWA. Around 800,000 companies fall in overexploited, critical and semi-critical blocks, representing 36% of 6,881 groundwater assessment units. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Year : 2020
Category : General Studies
7 .
Consider the following statements :

1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
B)
2 and 3 only
C)
2 only
D)
1 and 3 only

Correct Answer : Option (C) - 2 only

Note :

Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of strong wind in the upper levels of the atmosphere. The winds blow from west to east in jet streams but the flow often shifts to the north and south. Jet streams follow the boundaries between hot and cold air.
Since these hot and cold air boundaries are most pronounced in winter, jet streams are the strongest for both the northern and southern hemisphere winters. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
 
The “eye” of Tropical Cyclone is a roughly circular area of comparatively light winds and fair weather found at the center of a severe tropical cyclone.
 
The eye is the region of lowest surface pressure and warmest temperatures aloft (in the upper levels) – the eye temperature may be 10°C warmer or more at an altitude of 12 km than the surrounding environment, but only 0-2°C warmer at the surface in the tropical cyclone (Hawkins and Rubsam 1968). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
 
The formation of an eye is almost always an indicator of increasing tropical cyclone organisation and strength. Because of this, forecasters watch developing storms closely for signs of eye formation.
 
But in Extratropical Cyclones or Temperate Cyclones, there is not a single place where winds and rains are inactive (as in case of Tropical Cyclone). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Year : 2020
Category : General Studies
A)
Corbett
B)
Ranthambore
C)
Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
D)
Sunderbans

Correct Answer : Option (C) - Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam

Note :

Tiger Reserve :

* Corbett : 821.99(sq. Km)
* Ranthambore :  1113.364(sq. Km)
* Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam : 2595.72(sq. Km)
* Sunderbans : 1699.62(sq. Km)

Year : 2020
Category : General Studies
9 .
With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar? 
 
  1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
  2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
 
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
Both 1 and 2
D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : Option (D) - Neither 1 nor 2

Note :

During Akbar's period all the territory was broadly divided into two : khalisa and jagir. The revenue from the first went to Imperial treasury and that from jagir was assigned to jagirdars in lieu of their salary in cash (naqd) according to their rank. Right to collect revenue was to utilise the same for their salary and to meet their military obligations. The judicial and police functions were performed locally by zamindars. 
 
An important feature of the jagir system was shifting of jagir-holders from one jagir to another for administrative reasons. This system of transfers checked the jagirdars from developing local roots. Thus jagirs were transferable and could be seized too. Zamindars on the other hand were hereditary. The zamindars were present in practically every part of the Mughal Empire and held the most significant position in the agrarian structure of Mughal India. The word zamindar is derived from two Persian words-zamin (land) and dar (holder).

Year : 2019
Category : History
A)
The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
B)
The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
C)
It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
D)
Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

Correct Answer : Option (B) - The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.

Note :

Major weakness of Land ceiling laws was that they were aimed at individual holdings. It allowed many zamindars to transfer land notionally to their relatives and thus escape the ceiling. The reason for land reforms was providing land to all landless people (redistribution) because landlessness was considered as one major reason of poverty and exploitation. Cultivation of cash crops require much more inputs than mere availability of holdings. Cash crops, during British time, were induced by force while in post-independence, major transformation for cash crops has happened where capital, market access, technology and irrigation are available. After the Second Plan, a large numbers of exemptions kicked in for certain categories of land – tea/rubber plantations, orchards, dairying etc to promote certain kind of capitalist expansion in place of absentee landlordism.

Year : 2019
Category : History