Google News
logo
UPSC Previous Years (Prelims & Mains) Questions
A)
Cauvery
B)
Manjira
C)
Pennar
D)
Tungabhadra

Correct Answer : Option (C) - Pennar

Note :

* Gandikota is a small village in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh. The village is majorly known for housing the spectacular gorge which is famously adjudged as the Grand Canyon of India. 

* The stunning gorge has been created by the waters of the famous river Pennar that streams from the Erramala hills.

* Penna (also known as Pinakini, Pennar, Penner, Penneru (Telugu), Pennai (Tamil)) is a river of southern India.

* India has always been a popular tourist destination for its historic forts, stunning palaces and dense jungles.

* Now, a lesser known gorge in the southern state of Andhra Pradesh is drawing visitors.

* The gorge is a stunning maze of jagged rocks layered in shades of red. The PennaRiver meanders through the canyon floor as it cuts through the Erramala hills.

* The area is known as the Grand Canyon of India because of its resemblance to the famous US landmark.

* It's also home to two ancient temples and a 12th Century fort that sits atop the hills surrounding the gorge.

Source : BBC

Year : 2022
Category : General Studies
A)
Lake Victoria
B)
Lake Faguibine
C)
Lake Oguta
D)
Lake Volta

Correct Answer : Option (B) - Lake Faguibine

Note :

One example of increasing aridity in Mali appears in Lake Faguibine. These false-color Landsat satellite images of the lake show how it changed over the decades.
 
Lying at the end of a series of basins watered by the Niger River when it floods, Lake Faguibine has experienced widely fluctuating water levels since the turn of the twentieth century but, at its fullest, has ranked among the largest lakes in West Africa. In 1974, this lake covered roughly 590 square kilometers (230 square miles). Starting in the late 1980s, a drop in precipitation steadily dried the lake. By the late 1990s, the traditional livelihoods of fishing, agriculture, and livestock herding became impractical. Even though normal rainfall resumed after the year 2000, the lake remained nearly dry.

Source : Earthobservatory  & Africanews

Year : 2022
Category : General Studies
3 .
"System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in :
 
1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption
 
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A)
1 and 2 only
B)
2 and 3 only
C)
1 and 3 only
D)
1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : Option (D) - 1, 2 and 3

Note :

System of Rice Intensification (SRI) includes a method called Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD) which is a form of controlled or intermittent irrigation of the rice crops.  The benefits from the programme include reduction in methane emissions from traditional rice cultivation, and significant reduction in water consumption. The crop yields are maintained and not affected negatively, and the programme leads to the creation of community organisation and strengthening of networks through the formation of farmer groups. Typically, farmers use diesel to pump large amounts of water to flood their fields. With intermittent flooding, water pumps are run for shorter periods of time, reducing fuel consumption.
 
Benefits and Impacts of SRI 
 
* To increase paddy yields usually by 20-50% and sometimes 100% or more; 
* To reduce required seeds for transplanting by 60-80%; 
* To reduce use of chemical fertilizers and agrichemicals; 
* To reduce irrigation water by 25-50%; 
* To reduce production costs usually by 10-20%; and
* With increased output and reduced costs, farmers’ net income is increased.

Source : sri.ciifad

Year : 2022
Category : General Studies
A)
Cotton
B)
Rice
C)
Sugarcane
D)
Wheat

Correct Answer : Option (B) - Rice

Note : Methane and nitrous oxide are emitted from conventional and modified rice cultivation systems.

Year : 2022
Category : General Studies
5 .
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
 
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
 
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A)
1 and 3 only
B)
1, 2 and 3
C)
3 and 4 only
D)
2 and 4 only

Correct Answer : Option (A) - 1 and 3 only

Note :

Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha 

* Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. He is elected after the election of the Speaker has taken place. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker. Whenever the office of the Deputy Speaker falls vacant, the Lok Sabha elects another member to fill the vacancy.

* Upto the 10th Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were usually from the ruling party. Since the 11th Lok Sabha, there has been a consensus that the Speaker comes from the ruling party (or ruling alliance) and the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition party.

* The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. He also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House. In both cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker. He also presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting.

* At any time before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing, addressed to the Secretary-General, of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House and the notice shall be seconded by a third member and shall be accompanied by a statement by the member whose name is proposed in the notice that the member proposed is willing to serve as Deputy Speaker 

Source : Loksabhaph

Year : 2022
Category : General Studies
6 .
With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:
 
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 and 2 only
B)
3 only
C)
1 and 3 only
D)
1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : Option (B) -

3 only

Note :

Statement 1 is incorrect: Participation in ABDM is voluntary including for citizens. Participation of a healthcare facility or an institution is also voluntary and shall be taken by the respective management (government or private management). However, once the management decides to register the respective healthcare facility/institution in ABDM, it is essential for all the healthcare professionals serving the said facility/institution to register in Healthcare Professionals Registry so that the institution can become fully integrated with the National Digital Health Ecosystem (NDHE).

By elimination, Option (b) is correct

Source : NDHM

Year : 2022
Category : General Studies
7 .
With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
 
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
 
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A)
1 and 2 only
B)
2 and 3 only
C)
1 and 3 only
D)
1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer : Option (C) - 1 and 3 only

Note :

Mandamus 
 
It literally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose. The writ of mandamus cannot be issued (a) against a private individual or body; (b) to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force; (c) when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory; (d) to enforce a contractual obligation; (e) against the president of India or the state governors; and (f) against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity.
 
Quo-Warranto
 
Quo-Warranto In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person. The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.

Year : 2022
Category : General Studies
8 .
Consider the following statements:
 
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
Both 1 and 2
D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : Option (D) - Neither 1 nor 2

Note :

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Solicitor General does not participate in the meetings of Parliament. 

Statement 2 is Incorrect: There is no provision regarding thethe procedure and grounds for the removal of Attorney General mentioned in the Constitution except that he/she holds office during the pleasure of the president. Conventionally (but not mandatorily), he/she resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice. 

Year : 2022
Category : General Studies
9 .
With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
 
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A)
1 only
B)
2 only
C)
Both 1 and 2
D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : Option (B) - 2 only

Note :

Statement 1 is incorrect: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House without inviting this disqualification.
 
Statement 2 is correct: The law does not specify a time-period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea.

Source : PRS India

Year : 2022
Category : General Studies
10 .
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
 
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
 
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A)
1 and 2
B)
2 only
C)
1 and 3
D)
3 only

Correct Answer : Option (B) - 2 only

Note :

Statement 1 is incorrect: For the ratification of the proclamation of emergency, a resolution for the same must be passed by special majority by the Both Houses separately.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 75 of the Constitution says that the council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Both the Houses have the role in the impeachment of the President. After the impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of a House, it is sent to the other House, which should investigate the charges. If the other House also sustains the charges and passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership, then the President stands removed from his office.

Year : 2022
Category : General Studies