Civil Engineering Airport Engineering Quiz (or) MCQ

1 .

According to I.C.A.O. the recommended length of air ports is decided on

A)

sea level elevation

B)

effective gradient percentage

C)

standard sea level temperature (15Â°C)

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

2 .

Effective length of a runway is the distance between

A)

ends of the runway

B)

ends of the clear way on either side

C)

point of intersection of the obstruction clearance line and the extended plane of the runway surface, and the other end of the runway

D)

point of intersection of the glide path and the extended plane of the runway surface and the other end of the runway

Correct Answer : point of intersection of the obstruction clearance line and the extended plane of the runway surface, and the other end of the runway

3 .

The thickness design of the pavement, is decided on the load carried by

A)

nose wheel

B)

tail wheel

C)

main gears

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

4 .

The distance between main gears is 10 m, and the distance of nose gear from centre of main gears is 30 m. If the angle of turning is 60°, the distance of centre of rotation from the nearer main gear, is

A)

12.30 m

B)

11.30 m

C)

10.30 m

D)

9.30 m

Correct Answer : 12.30 m

5 .

From the end of an instrumental runway, the approach surface rises outwards

A)

1 in 30

B)

1 in 40

C)

1 in 50

D)

None of the above

Correct Answer : 1 in 50

6 .

According to the International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.), the runway lengths of aerodromes, have been coded by

A)

First Seven English alphabets

B)

Seven English alphabets

C)

First seven natural numbers

D)

Last Seven English alphabets

Correct Answer : First Seven English alphabets

7 .

For the taxiways, the following statement is true

A)

The maximum longitudinal grade is 3%

B)

The permissible rate of change of grade is 1%

C)

The permissible transverse grade is 1.5%

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

8 .

According to the International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) the strength of runway pavements, have been coded by

A)

Seven English alphabets

B)

First seven numbers

C)

Last Seven English alphabets

D)

First Seven English alphabets

Correct Answer : First seven numbers

9 .

The length of runway is increased per 300 m rise above M.S.L.

A)

7%

B)

6%

C)

5%

D)

4%

Correct Answer : 7%

10 .

If lift off distance of an craft is 2000 m, the clear way at the end of the runway should not be less than

A)

145 m

B)

152.5 m

C)

172.5 m

D)

162.5 m

Correct Answer : 172.5 m

11 .

The threshold markings are_____.

A)

4 m wide

B)

1 m clear space between adjacents

C)

45 m in length

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

Explanation : * 4 m wide
* 1 m clear space between adjacents
* 45 m in length
* placed symmetrically on either side of the runway centre line

12 .

The bearing of the longest line of a wind rose is S 45Â° E, the bearing of the runway will be numbered

A)

13

B)

31

C)

Both (A) and (B)

D)

135Â°

Correct Answer : Both (A) and (B)

13 .

For the proposed runway stated in if the aerodrome reference temperature is 17Â°.2, the net designed length of the runway is

A)

2716 m

B)

2816 m

C)

2916 m

D)

3016 m

Correct Answer : 2816 m

14 .

The lift off distance is the distance along the centre of the runway between the starting point and

A)

end of the runway

B)

end of stopway

C)

point where air craft becomes air borne

D)

point where air craft attains a height of 10.7 m

Correct Answer : end of the runway

15 .

Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A)

The location of the air port on a map is the position of air port reference point

B)

Approximate geometric centre of the landing area, is called air port reference point

C)

The boundaries of horizontal surface and conical surface are marked with reference to air port reference point

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

16 .

The reduced levels of the ends A and B of a runway are 3025 m and 3035 m and that of its mid-point is 3015 m. The reduced level of the horizontal surface, is

A)

3015 m

B)

3060 m

C)

3075 m

D)

3070 m

Correct Answer : 3075 m

17 .

The height of the pilot's eye above the runway surface is assumed

A)

1 m

B)

3 m

C)

4 m

D)

5 m

Correct Answer : 3 m

18 .

The depressions and undulations in the pavement, are caused due to

A)

punching effect

B)

flexible gears

C)

impact of heavy wheel loads

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

Explanation : * punching effect
* flexible gears
* impact of heavy wheel loads
* improper compaction of subgrade

19 .

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :

A)

In single engine aeroplanes, the engine is provided in the nose of the aircraft

B)

In double engine aeroplanes, one engine on either wing is placed symmetrically

C)

In three engine aeroplanes, two engines are placed on both wings and one engine is placed in the tail

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : In three engine aeroplanes, two engines are placed on both wings and one engine is placed in the tail

20 .

Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A)

The basic length of a runway is increased at a rate of 7% per 300 m of elevation of M.S.L.

B)

The aerodrome reference temperature is the monthly mean of the mean daily temperature for the hottest month of the year

C)

The standard temperature at the site is obtained by reducing the standard sea level temperature of 15°C at the rate of 6.5°C per 1000 m rise in elevation

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

21 .

For Class A Air port the difference of reduced levels of higher and lower edges of the conical surface, is

A)

100 m

B)

75 m

C)

50 m

D)

25 m

Correct Answer : 100 m

22 .

Beaufort scale is used to determine

A)

direction of winds

B)

height of air-crafts

C)

strength of winds

D)

None of the above

Correct Answer : strength of winds

23 .

The fuse large includes_____.

A)

pilot's cabin

B)

tail of aircraft

C)

passengers chamber

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

24 .

To cope up high temperature of 196Â°C, the taxi ways and aprons are constructed with

A)

plain concrete

B)

asphaltic concrete

C)

rubberised tar concrete

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

Explanation : * plain concrete
* asphaltic concrete
* rubberised tar concrete
* epoxy asphalt concrete

25 .

A gradient of + 0.08% is followed by a gradient of - 0.07%. If the permissible rate of change of grade is 0.003 per 30 metres, the length of the transition curve, is

A)

140 m

B)

150 m

C)

165 m

D)

170 m

Correct Answer : 150 m

26 .

The coordinates of the ends of a runway are (5000, 5000) and (8000, 7000). The co-ordinates of an other runway are (4600, 5100) and (7000, 5300). The co-ordinates of the A.R.P. are

A)

(61500, 5600)

B)

(5800, 5200)

C)

(6500, 6000)

D)

(8000, 7000)

Correct Answer : (61500, 5600)

27 .

The bearing of the runway at threshold is 290Â°, the runway number is

A)

290Â°

B)

29Â°

C)

N 70Â° W

D)

W 20Â° N

Correct Answer : 29Â°

28 .

The best direction of a runway is along the direction of

A)

line clear of wind rose diagram

B)

shortest line on the wind rose diagram

C)

longest line on wind rose diagram

D)

None of the above

Correct Answer : longest line on wind rose diagram

29 .

International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was set up at Montreal (Canada), in

A)

1929

B)

1935

C)

1947

D)

1950

Correct Answer : 1947

30 .

The air is blowing at a speed of 75 knots in the direction of the aircraft flying at a ground speed of 775 knots. The air speed of the aircraft, is

A)

675 knots

B)

775 knots

C)

850 knots

D)

None of the above

Correct Answer : 675 knots

31 .

Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A)

Runway edge from the landing side, is called threshold

B)

The glide slope indicates the correct angle of descent

C)

L.O.M. and L.M.M. help the pilot to judge his position for the runway

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

Explaination : * Runway edge from the landing side, is called threshold
* The glide slope indicates the correct angle of descent
* L.O.M. and L.M.M. help the pilot to judge his position for the runway
* Localizer indicates to the pilot his position with respect to the proposed alignment

32 .

The maximum length and pavement strength of the runway is that of

A)

A 1

B)

B 2

C)

B 3

D)

G 7

Correct Answer : A 1

33 .

The strength of winds is measured with the help of

A)

Barometres

B)

Benfort scale

C)

Wind indicator

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : Benfort scale

34 .

Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A)

Landing speed is directly proportional to the wing loading

B)

Wing loading remaining constant, the take off distance is directly proportional to the powder loading

C)

Both (A) and (B)

D)

Neither (A) nor (B)

Correct Answer : Both (A) and (B)

35 .

Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A)

The landing and take off of the air craft is made against the wind direction

B)

The product of wind loading and power loading is called air craft rating

C)

The wind data of an air port is depicted in the form of a chart known as wind rose

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer :

Explaination : * The landing and take off of the air craft is made against the wind direction
* The product of wind loading and power loading is called air craft rating
* The wind data of an air port is depicted in the form of a chart known as wind rose
* Approach zone survey is carried out to determine the elevations of the protruding obstructions above horizontal, conical and transitional surfaces

36 .

The runway orientation is made so that landing and take off are

A)

along the wind direction

B)

perpendicular to wind direction

C)

against the wind direction

D)

None of the above

Correct Answer : against the wind direction

37 .

An aircraft is flying in an atmosphere of 30Â°C with a speed of 1260 km ph. Its speed is known as

A)

sonic

B)

Mach

C)

sub-sonic

D)

super-sonic

Correct Answer : sonic

38 .

According to I.C.A.O. the slope of transitional surface at right angles to the centre line of runway, is kept

A)

1 in 6

B)

1 in 7

C)

1 in 10

D)

1 in 15

Correct Answer : 1 in 10

39 .

Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A)

The length of the normal haul of the air craft decides the frequency of operation

B)

Take off and landing distances for an aircraft, determine the minimum runway length

C)

Minimum turning radius of aircrafts decides the size of the apron and the radius of the curves at taxi-ends

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

40 .

Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A)

The speed of the aircraft relative to wind, is called air speed

B)

The speed of the aircraft relative to the ground, is called cruising speed

C)

When wind is blowing the direction of the flight, air speed is less than cruising speed

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

41 .

Conical surface of the approach area rises outwards

A)

1 in 10

B)

1 in 15

C)

1 in 20

D)

1 in 25

Correct Answer : 1 in 20

42 .

The maximum value of the angle of turning of the nose gear large jet aircrafts, is limited to

A)

75Â°

B)

60Â°

C)

45Â°

D)

30Â°

Correct Answer : 60Â°

43 .

Total correction for elevation, temperature and gradient for a runway should not be more than

A)

35%

B)

30%

C)

25%

D)

20%

Correct Answer : 35%

44 .

Two single runways may be arranged so as to have

A)

L-shape

B)

T-shape

C)

X-shape

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

45 .

Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A)

Air screw converts the energy given by the engine into speed

B)

The propellers which are driven by turbine engines, are technically called turboprops

C)

The aircrafts which obtain the thrust directly from turbine engine, are called turbo-jets

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

Explaination : * Air screw converts the energy given by the engine into speed
* The propellers which are driven by turbine engines, are technically called turboprops
* The aircrafts which obtain the thrust directly from turbine engine, are called turbo-jets
* The aircraft which is filled with a fan infront of turbo-jet engine, is called turbofan propelled aeroplane

46 .

The landing and take off of the air craft is made against the direction of wind. In no case the centre line of the runway should make an angle with the wind direction exceeding

A)

40Â°

B)

30Â°

C)

20Â°

D)

10Â°

Correct Answer : 30Â°

47 .

In instrument landing system

A)

L.O.M. and Localizer are installed on one side and L.M.M. on the other side

B)

Localizer and L.M.M. are installed on one side and L.O.M. on the other side

C)

L.O.M. and L.M.M. are installed on one side and Localizer antenna on the other side

D)

None of the above

Correct Answer : L.O.M. and L.M.M. are installed on one side and Localizer antenna on the other side

48 .

Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A)

Epoxy asphalt concrete sets in very small time

B)

Rubberised tar concrete hot blast as well as spillage

C)

Tar concrete pavements are suitable if fuel spillage occurs

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

Explaination : * Epoxy asphalt concrete sets in very small time
* Rubberised tar concrete hot blast as well as spillage
* Tar concrete pavements are suitable if fuel spillage occurs
* Epoxy asphalt concrete resists the jet fuels and provides more elastic pavement

49 .

The length of a runway under standard atmospheric conditions is 1800 m. If the actual reduced level of the site is 1200 m, the design length of the runway is

A)

2560 m

B)

2660 m

C)

2460 m

D)

2360 m

Correct Answer : 2560 m

50 .

For night landing, the thresholds are lighted

A)

red

B)

green

C)

white

D)

yellow

Correct Answer : green

51 .

Airport elevation is the reduced level above M.S.L. of

A)

control tower

B)

lowest point of the landing area

C)

highest point of the landing area

D)

None of the above

Correct Answer : highest point of the landing area

52 .

The reduced level of the proposed site of an air port is 2500 m above M.S.L. If the recommended length by I.C.A.O. for the runway at sea level is 2500 m, the required length of the runway is

A)

3725 m

B)

3250 m

C)

3000 m

D)

2500 m

Correct Answer : 3725 m

53 .

The meterological condition which influences the size and location of an air port is

A)

air density

B)

reduced level

C)

atmosphere pressure

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

54 .

For the proposed air port, the survey project provides

A)

master plan

B)

grading plan

C)

topograhic plan

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

55 .

If the width of the approach area near the runway end is 150 m, the width of the approach area at a distance of 3 kilometres from runway end will be

A)

800 m

B)

1000 m

C)

1200 m

D)

1500 m

Correct Answer : 1200 m

56 .

According to I.C.A.O. all markings on the runways are painted white and on taxiways

A)

yellow

B)

red

C)

black

D)

green

Correct Answer : yellow

57 .

How many types of Fly Rules are there?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

Correct Answer : 2

Explanation : There are 2 fly rules; the VFR (Visual Flight Rules) and IFR (Instrumental Fly Rules). The VFR allows the aircraft to be operated within reasonable conditions by oneself. In IFR, the operations are entirely controlled by instruments. A flight plan is required in both cases.

58 .

Elevation of airport site above MSL is a factor that controls airport size.

A)

True

B)

False

C)

Can not say

D)

--

Correct Answer : True

59 .

Airports can be classified on how many basis?

A)

1

B)

2

C)

3

D)

4

Correct Answer : 4

Explanation : The airports can be classified into 4 on the basis of take-off and landing, geometric design, based on aircraft approach speed (FAA) and function.

60 .

ICAO classification system considers how many things?

A)

2

B)

3

C)

4

D)

5

Correct Answer : 2

Explanation : The ICAO classification system is based on geometric designs broadly. It mainly considers 2 things for its classification – length of the runway and on basis of wing span and outer main gear wheel span.

61 .

The FAA classification of the airport is based on :

A)

Function

B)

Length of Runway

C)

Geometric design

D)

Airport approach speed

Correct Answer : Airport approach speed

Explanation : The FAA or Federal Aviation Administration classifies on the basis of the aircraft approach speed, given in knots. They are ranging from category A<91 knots to category E>186 knots.

62 .

An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilization factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be

A)

1 aircraft per hour

B)

2 aircrafts per hour

C)

4 aircrafts per hour

D)

16 aircrafts per hour

Correct Answer : 4 aircrafts per hour

63 .

Pick up the component not applicable to aeroplanes

A)

Wings

B)

Engines

C)

Air screw

D)

None of the above

Correct Answer : None of the above

64 .

As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of

A)

0.1 %

B)

0.2 %

C)

0.3 %

D)

0.4 %

Correct Answer : 0.1 %

65 .

The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should be

A)

1 : 40

B)

1 : 8

C)

1 : 5

D)

1 : 2

Correct Answer : 1 : 8

66 .

The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require

A)

Only clearway

B)

Only stop way

C)

Either a clearway or a stop-way

D)

Either a clearway or a stop-way or both

Correct Answer : Either a clearway or a stop-way or both

67 .

Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements?

A)

Alligator cracking

B)

Mud pumping

C)

Warping cracks

D)

Shrinkage cracks

Correct Answer : Alligator cracking

68 .

Which of the following is not a characteristic of centralized system of the terminal Area?

A)

Passengers, cargo routed centrally

B)

Passenger facilities in small units

C)

Both (A) and (B)

D)

Common facilities for different gate positions

Correct Answer : Passenger facilities in small units

Explanation : The passenger facilities are arranged in smaller units or provided separately at different locations in a decentralised system. Each unit will have aircraft gate positions.

69 .

Which of the below does not affect the site-selection of an airport site?

A)

Adequate access

B)

Sufficient airspace

C)

Number of ground staff

D)

Air traffic potential

Correct Answer : Number of ground staff

Explanation : The other 3 options are the specific aspects on which the site-selection is dependent. The site should be accessible by people easily from different locations, there should be potential for air traffic – flight or passenger and sufficient airspace for airports without obstruction. The ground staff is considered depending on the size of airport.

70 .

The application of __________ diagram is used to find the orientation of the runway to get the desired wind coverage.

A)

Wind Rose

B)

Wind Star

C)

Wind Cycle

D)

Wind Butterfly

Correct Answer : Wind Rose

Explanation : An average date of around 5-10 years of the various components of wind (intensity, duration and direction) of the area is compiled to make a Wind Rose diagram. The entire area of the airport is divided into 16 equal parts at angles of 22.5o. The wind coverage in each of the small quadrants is then studied for the orientation of the runway.

71 .

The wind intensity during a calm period in runways should be :

A)

Below 4.6km/hr

B)

Above 5km/hr

C)

Between 5-10 km/hr

D)

Below 6.4km/hr

Correct Answer : Below 6.4km/hr

Explanation : The wind intensity should remain below 6.4km/hr during a calm period and it is the same for all wind direction. It is equal to 100 minus the total wind coverage.

72 .

As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be

A)

2100 m and 750 m

B)

2100 m and 600 m

C)

1500 m and 600 m

D)

1500 m and 750 m

Correct Answer : 2100 m and 600 m

73 .

Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is :

A)

Equal to empty operating weight

B)

Equal to maximum landing weight

C)

Less than empty operating weight

D)

Equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load

Correct Answer : Equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load

74 .

Castor angle is defined as the angle

A)

Between the horizontal and the fuselage axis

B)

Between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component

C)

Formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear

D)

Between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway

Correct Answer : Formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear

75 .

As per UK design criteria, if LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN of pavement, then the number of movements allowed are

A)

Zero

B)

300

C)

3000

D)

5000

Correct Answer : 300

76 .

Maximum gross takeoff weight of an aircraft is

A)

More than the maximum structural landing weight

B)

Equal to the maximum structural landing weight

C)

Less than the maximum structural landing weight

D)

Equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload

Correct Answer : More than the maximum structural landing weight

77 .

Wing loading of an aircraft is

A)

Load of the wings

B)

Gross total weight of the aircraft/load of the wings

C)

Gross total weight of the aircraft/wing area

D)

Gross total weight of the aircraft/total available H.P. of engines

Correct Answer : Gross total weight of the aircraft/wing area

78 .

The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph, then the air speed and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be

A)

500 kmph and 450 kmph

B)

500 kmph and 500 kmph

C)

450 kmph and 450 kmph

D)

450 kmph and 500 kmph

Correct Answer : 450 kmph and 500 kmph

79 .

In Instrumental landing system, the middle markers are located

A)

About 1 km. ahead of the runway threshold

B)

About 7 km. ahead of the runway threshold

C)

At the runway threshold

D)

Along the extended centre line of runway end

Correct Answer : About 1 km. ahead of the runway threshold

80 .

Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance of

A)

3 m from runway end

B)

6 m from runway end

C)

10 m from runway end

D)

15 m from runway end

Correct Answer : 6 m from runway end

81 .

As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not exceed

A)

15 kmph

B)

25 kmph

C)

35 kmph

D)

45 kmph

Correct Answer : 35 kmph

82 .

Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than

A)

4.8 kmph

B)

6.4 kmph

C)

8.0 kmph

D)

9.6 kmph

Correct Answer : 6.4 kmph

83 .

Speed of__________.

A)

Sound at 0Â°C is 1190 kmph

B)

Sound at 0Â°C is called one Mach

C)

Sound varies 2.4 kmph per degree centigrade rise in temperature

D)

All of the above

Correct Answer : All of the above

84 .

The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon

A)

Weather conditions and navigational aids available

B)

Lateral spacing between two runways and weather conditions

C)

Lateral spacing between two runways and navigational aids available

D)

Lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational aids available

Correct Answer : Lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational aids available

85 .

For determining the basic runway length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is

A)

60 %

B)

75 %

C)

80 %

D)

85 %

Correct Answer : 60 %

86 .

In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well separated are considered for traffic and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be

A)

32

B)

36

C)

44

D)

68

Correct Answer : 36