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Networking - Quiz(MCQ)
1 .
Who discovered computer networks?
A)
1961
B)
1965
C)
1970
D)
1977

Correct Answer :   1961

Explanation : The idea of ARPANET, one of the earliest computer networks, was proposed by Leonard Kleinrock in 1961, in his paper titled "Information Flow in Large Communication Nets."

2 .
The first Network was called ________
A)
CNNET
B)
NSFNET
C)
ARPANET
D)
ASAPNET

Correct Answer :   ARPANET

Explanation : ARPANET was one of the first computer networks to use packet switching. Development of ARPANET started in 1966, and the first two nodes, UCLA and SRI (Standford Research Institute), were connected, officially starting ARPANET in 1969.

3 .
The IETF standards documents are called ________
A)
ID
B)
RFC
C)
RCF
D)
DFC

Correct Answer :   RFC

Explanation : RFC stands for Request For Comments and they are documents that describe methods, behaviors, research, or innovations applicable to the working of the Internet.

4 .
In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are _____
A)
Added
B)
Removed
C)
Modified
D)
Rearranged

Correct Answer :   Added

Explanation : Each layer adds its own header to the packet from the previous layer. For example, in the Internet layer, the IP header is added over the TCP header on the data packet that came from the transport layer.

5 .
How long is an IPv6 address?
A)
128 bytes
B)
32 bits
C)
64 bits
D)
128 bits

Correct Answer :   128 bits

Explanation : An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.

6 .
What flavor of Network Address Translation can be used to have one IP address allow many users to connect to the global Internet?
A)
NAT
B)
PAT
C)
Static
D)
Dynamic

Correct Answer :   PAT

Explanation : Port Address Translation (PAT) allows a one-to-many approach to network address translation.

7 .
What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)?
A)
IEEE and Extended
B)
Specialized and Standard
C)
Specialized and IEEE
D)
Standard and Extended

Correct Answer :   Standard and Extended

Explanation : Standard and extended Access Control Lists (ACLs) are used to configure security on a router.

8 .
The structure or format of data is called ___________
A)
Struct
B)
Semantics
C)
Syntax
D)
Formatting

Correct Answer :   Syntax

Explanation : The structure and format of data are defined using syntax. Semantics defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be taken based on that interpretation. In programming languages, syntax of the instructions plays a vital role in designing of the program.

9 .
Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission.
A)
Simplex
B)
Automatic
C)
Half-duplex
D)
Full-duplex

Correct Answer :   Simplex

Explanation : In simplex transmission, data flows in single direction which in this case refers to the data flowing from the keyboard to the computer. Another example would be of the mouse where the data flows from the mouse to the computer only.

10 .
What command is used to create a backup configuration?
A)
config
B)
config mem
C)
copy running backup
D)
copy running-config startup-config

Correct Answer :   copy running-config startup-config

Explanation : The command to back up the configuration on a router is copy running-config startup-config.

11 .
You have 10 users plugged into a hub running 10Mbps half-duplex. There is a server connected to the switch running 10Mbps half-duplex as well. How much bandwidth does each host have to the server?
A)
100 kbps
B)
1 Mbps
C)
2 Mbps
D)
10 Mbps

Correct Answer :   10 Mbps

Explanation : Each device has 10 Mbps to the server.

12 .
Which WLAN IEEE specification allows up to 54Mbps at 2.4GHz?
A)
A
B)
G
C)
B
D)
N

Correct Answer :   G

Explanation : IEEE 802.11B is 2.4GHz, but with a maximum of only 11Mbps. IEEE 802.11G is in the 2.4GHz range, with a top speed of 54Mbps.

13 .
What does a VLAN do?
A)
Acts as the fastest port to all servers.
B)
Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port.
C)
Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork.
D)
Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain.

Correct Answer :   Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork.

Explanation : VLANs break up broadcast domains at layer 2.

14 .
Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer?
A)
IP
B)
UDP
C)
ARP
D)
TCP

Correct Answer :   UDP

Explanation : User Datagram Protocol is a connection network service at the Transport layer, and DHCP uses this connectionless service.

15 .
When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it is called ______
A)
Distributed system
B)
Networking system
C)
Mail system
D)
Computer network

Correct Answer :   Distributed system

Explanation :

A Computer network is defined as a collection of interconnected computers which uses a single technology for connection.

A distributed system is also the same as computer network but the main difference is that the whole collection of computers appears to its users as a single coherent system.

Example : World wide web

16 .
Two devices are in network if _______
A)
a process is running on both devices
B)
a process is active and another is inactive
C)
PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same
D)
a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device

Correct Answer :   a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device

Explanation : A computer network, or data network, is a digital telecommunications network which allows nodes to share resources. In computer networks, computing devices exchange data with each other using connections between nodes. The nodes have certain processes which enable them to share a specific type of data using a distinct protocol.

17 .
Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is enabled on a particular interface?
A)
show interface
B)
show access-lists
C)
show ip interface
D)
show interface access-lists

Correct Answer :   show ip interface

Explanation : The show ip interface command will show you if any outbound or inbound interfaces have an access list set.

18 .
Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?
A)
Physical layer
B)
Data Link layer
C)
Session layer
D)
Application layer

Correct Answer :   Physical layer

Explanation : Hubs regenerate electrical signals, which are specified at the Physical layer.

19 .
Which of the following computer networks is built on the top of another network?
A)
chief network
B)
overlay network
C)
prior network
D)
prime network

Correct Answer :   overlay network

Explanation : An overlay network is a computer network that is built on top of another network. Some examples of an overlay network are Virtual Private Networks (VPN) and Peer-to-Peer Networks (P2P).

20 .
In computer network nodes are ________
A)
The computer that routes the data
B)
The computer that originates the data
C)
The computer that terminates the data
D)
All of the Above

Correct Answer :   All of the Above

Explanation : In a computer network, a node can be anything that is capable of sending data or receiving data or even routing the data to its destination. Routers, Computers and Smartphones are some examples of network nodes.

21 .
Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in _____
A)
unicast network
B)
broadcast network
C)
multicast network
D)
anycast network

Correct Answer :   broadcast network

Explanation : In a broadcast network, information is sent to all stations in a network whereas in a multicast network the data or information is sent to a group of stations in the network. In unicast network, information is sent to only one specific station. The broadcast address of the network is the last assigned address of the network.

22 .
How often are BPDUs sent from a layer 2 device?
A)
Every 30 seconds
B)
Every 10 minutes
C)
Every 2 seconds
D)
Never

Correct Answer :   Every 2 seconds

Explanation : Every 2 seconds, BPDUs are sent out from all active bridge ports by default.

23 .
How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
A)
1
B)
2
C)
5
D)
10

Correct Answer :   1

Explanation : By default, switches break up collision domains but are one large broadcast domain.

24 .
Which of this is not a constituent of residential telephone line?
A)
A low-speed downstream channel
B)
A high-speed downstream channel
C)
A medium-speed downstream channel
D)
An ultra-high speed downstream channel

Correct Answer :   A low-speed downstream channel

Explanation : A low-speed downstream channel is not a constituent of a residential telephone line. But it might be just a two-way telephone channel. Internet can be provided through a high-speed downstream channel in a residential telephone line.

25 .
DSL telcos provide which of the following services?
A)
ISP
B)
Wired phone access
C)
Network routing and ISP
D)
Wired phone access and ISP

Correct Answer :   Wired phone access and ISP

Explanation : DSL stands for Digital Subscriber Line and ISP stands for Internet Service Provider. In a Digital Subscriber Line system, the same company which provides phone connection is also an ISP. The internet is provided through the pre-installed telephone lines.

26 .
The function of DSLAM is to ____
A)
Amplify digital signals
B)
Convert analog signals into digital signals
C)
De-amplify digital signals
D)
Convert digital signals into analog signals

Correct Answer :   Convert analog signals into digital signals

Explanation : DSLAM stands for Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer and it’s used by Telcos to convert the analog signals to digital signals for the purpose of providing internet. The DSLAM located in a telco’s Central Office does this function.

27 .
Which of the following terms is not associated with DSL?
A)
CO
B)
Splitter
C)
CMTS
D)
DSLAM

Correct Answer :   CMTS

Explanation : CMTS stands for Cable Modem Termination System. It is used in cable internet access. In cable internet access, internet is not provided through telephone lines and the companies that provide such connections don’t necessarily provide telephone access.

28 .
What PPP protocol provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink?
A)
NCP
B)
LCP
C)
X.25
D)
HDLC

Correct Answer :   LCP

Explanation : Link Control Protocol in the PPP stack provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink.

29 .
What is a stub network?
A)
A network that has only one entry and exit point.
B)
A network with more than one exit point.
C)
A network with only one entry and no exit point.
D)
A network with more than one exit and entry point.

Correct Answer :   A network that has only one entry and exit point.

Explanation : Stub networks have only one connection to an internetwork. Only default routes can be set on a stub network or network loops may occur.

30 .
If your router is facilitating a CSU/DSU, which of the following commands do you need to use to provide the router with a 64000bps serial link?
A)
RouterA(config)#bandwidth 64
B)
RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64
C)
RouterA(config-if)#bandwidth 64000
D)
RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64000

Correct Answer :   RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64000

Explanation : The clock rate command is two words, and the speed of the line is in bps.

31 .
Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?
A)
Two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches.
B)
You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.
C)
VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain.
D)
VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand switches are allowed.

Correct Answer :   VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain.

Explanation : Switches do not propagate VLAN information by default; you must configure the VTP domain. VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is used to propagate VLAN information across a trunk link.

32 .
How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
A)
12
B)
10
C)
8
D)
6

Correct Answer :   12

Explanation : Layer 2 switching creates individual collision domains.

33 .
What command will display the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an interface?
A)
sh pvc
B)
show interface
C)
show run
D)
show frame-relay pvc

Correct Answer :   show interface

Explanation : The show interface command shows the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an interface.

34 .
Which protocol does Ping use?
A)
TCP
B)
ICMP
C)
ARP
D)
BootP

Correct Answer :   ICMP

Explanation : ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send echo requests and replies.

35 .
How many layers are present in the Internet protocol stack (TCP/IP model)?
A)
10
B)
8
C)
6
D)
5

Correct Answer :   5

Explanation : There are five layers in the Internet Protocol stack. The five layers in Internet Protocol stack is Application, Transport, Network, Data link and Physical layer. The internet protocol stack model is also called the TCP/IP model and it’s used in modern Internet Communication.

36 .
The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is ______
A)
5
B)
6
C)
7
D)
10

Correct Answer :   7

Explanation : The seven layers in ISO OSI reference model is Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data link and Physical layer. OSI stands for Open System Interconnect and it is a generalized model.

37 .
Which of the following layers is an addition to OSI model when compared with TCP IP model?
A)
Session layer
B)
Application layer
C)
Presentation layer
D)
Session and Presentation layer

Correct Answer :   Session and Presentation layer

Explanation : The only difference between OSI model and TCP/IP model is that the functions of Presentation and Session layer in the OSI model are handled by the transport layer itself in TCP/IP. OSI is a generalized model and TCP/IP is an application specific model.

38 .
Application layer is implemented in ______
A)
End system
B)
NIC
C)
Ethernet
D)
Packet transport

Correct Answer :   End system

Explanation : Not only application layer, but presentation layer, session layer and transport layer are also implemented in the end system. The layers below are implemented outside the end system, for example, the network layer is implemented on the routers and the physical layer is implemented for the medium.

39 .
Transport layer is implemented in _______
A)
NIC
B)
End system
C)
Ethernet
D)
Signal Transmission

Correct Answer :   End system

Explanation : Application, Presentation, Session and Transport layer are implemented in the end system. The transport layer handles the process to process delivery of the packet through ports.

40 .
In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is _____
A)
Link layer
B)
Transport layer
C)
Session layer
D)
Application layer

Correct Answer :   Session layer

Explanation : In OSI reference model, the fifth layer is Session layer. Session layer provides the mechanism for opening, closing and managing a session between end-user application processes. In TCP/IP protocol stack, the functions of the session layer are handled by the transport layer itself and thus the session layer is missing from the TCP/IP model.

41 .
Which command is used to upgrade an IOS on a Cisco router?
A)
config net
B)
copy tftp run
C)
copy tftp flash
D)
copy tftp start

Correct Answer :   copy tftp flash

Explanation : The copy tftp flash command places a new file in flash memory, which is the default location for the Cisco IOS in Cisco routers.

42 .
If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, what would you type?
A)
erase nvram
B)
delete nvram
C)
erase running
D)
erase startup

Correct Answer :   erase startup

Explanation : The command erase startup-config deletes the configuration stored in NVRAM.

43 .
OSI stands for____
A)
open system interconnection
B)
open service Internet
C)
operating system interface
D)
optical service implementation

Correct Answer :   open system interconnection

Explanation : OSI is the abbreviation for Open System Interconnection. OSI model provides a structured plan on how applications communicate over a network, which also helps us to have a structured plan for troubleshooting. It is recognized by the ISO as the generalized model for computer network i.e. it can be modified to design any kind of computer network.

44 .
TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI model have this layer.
A)
network layer
B)
session layer
C)
transport layer
D)
application layer

Correct Answer :   session layer

Explanation : In OSI reference model, there are two layers which are not present in TCP/IP model. They are Presentation and Session layer. The functions of Presentation and Session layer in the OSI model are handled by the transport layer itself in TCP/IP.

45 .
Which address is used on the internet for employing the TCP/IP protocols?
A)
Port address
B)
Specific address
C)
Physical address and logical address
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above

Explanation : The physical, logical, port and specific addresses are used in TCP/IP protocol. All the addressing schemes, that is physical (MAC) and logical address, port address and specific address are employed in both TCP/IP model and OSI model. In TCP/IP, the addresses are more focused on the internet implementation of these addresses.

46 .
TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.
A)
after
B)
prior to
C)
with no link to
D)
simultaneous to

Correct Answer :   prior to

Explanation : Several TCP/IP prototypes were developed at multiple research centers between 1978 and 1983, whereas OSI reference model was developed in the year 1984. TCP/IP was developed with the intention to create a model for the Internet while OSI was intended to be a general network model.

47 .
Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP address 192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides?
A)
192.168.168.128-190
B)
192.168.168.129-191
C)
192.168.168.129-190
D)
192.168.168.128-192

Correct Answer :   192.168.168.129-190

Explanation : 256 - 192 = 64. 64 + 64 = 128. 128 + 64 = 192. The subnet is 128, the broadcast address is 191, and the valid host range is the numbers in between, or 129-190.

48 .
To back up an IOS, what command will you use?
A)
copy flash tftp
B)
copy ios tftp
C)
copy tftp flash
D)
backup IOS disk

Correct Answer :   copy flash tftp

Explanation : The command copy flash tftp will prompt you to back up an existing IOS in flash to a TFTP host.

49 .
Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts?
A)
ARP
B)
TCP
C)
ICMP
D)
BootP

Correct Answer :   ICMP

Explanation : ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send messages back to an originating router.

50 .
Bluetooth is an example of _____
A)
local area network
B)
wide area network
C)
virtual private network
D)
personal area network

Correct Answer :   personal area network

Explanation : Bluetooth is a wireless technology used to create a wireless personal area network for data transfer up to a distance of 10 meters. It operates on 2.45 GHz frequency band for transmission.

51 .
A __________ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing information included in the packet.
A)
hub
B)
bridge
C)
firewall
D)
router

Correct Answer :   router

Explanation : A router is a networking device that forwards data packets between computer networks. Routers perform the traffic directing functions on the Internet. They make use of routing protocols like RIP to find the cheapest path to the destination.

52 .
What does the command 'routerA(config) line cons 0' allow you to perform next?
A)
Shut down the router.
B)
Set your console password.
C)
Set the Telnet password.
D)
Disable console connections.

Correct Answer :   Set your console password.

Explanation : The command line console 0 places you at a prompt where you can then set your console user-mode password.

53 .
Among the optical-distribution architectures that are essentially switched ethernet is ________
A)
AON
B)
MON
C)
NON
D)
PON

Correct Answer :   AON

Explanation : AON stands for Active optical networks which are essentially switched Ethernets. Each user has his/her own dedicated optical fiber line connecting to the ISP in an AON.

54 .
StarBand provides ______
A)
Cable access
B)
Telephone access
C)
Satellite access
D)
FTTH internet access

Correct Answer :   Satellite access

Explanation : StarBand was a two-way satellite broadband Internet service available in the U.S. from 2000–2015. It was discontinued from September 30 2015 due to increasing competition from other ISPs.

55 .
Home Access is provided by ______
A)
DSL
B)
Cable
C)
FTTP
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above

Explanation : Home Internet Access is provided by DSL, FTTP, and Cable. FTTP provides the fastest speeds followed by the cable connections and then the DSLs. FTTP is popularly used in modern connections.

56 .
ONT is connected to splitter using _____
A)
HFC
B)
Twisted pair cable
C)
Optical cable
D)
High speed fibre cable

Correct Answer :   Optical cable

Explanation : ONT stands for Optical Network Terminal. The ONT connects to the Termination Point (TP) with an optical fibre cable. It translates light signals from the fibre optic line to electric signals that the router can read.

57 .
In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are _______
A)
Added
B)
Removed
C)
Rearranged
D)
Randomized

Correct Answer :   Removed

Explanation : In OSI reference model, when data packet moves from lower layers to higher layer, headers get removed. Whereas when the data packet moves from higher layer to lower layers, headers are added. These headers contain the essential control information for the protocols used on the specific layer.

58 .
Which of the following statements can be associated with OSI model?
A)
It is an application specific network model
B)
One layer may duplicate lower layer functionality
C)
A structured way to discuss and easier update system components
D)
Functionality at one layer no way requires information from another layer

Correct Answer :   Functionality at one layer no way requires information from another layer

Explanation : One layer may use the information from another layer, for example timestamp value. The information is contained in the header inserted by the previous layer. The headers are added as the packet moves from higher layers to the lower layers.

59 .
Which address is used to identify a process on a host by the transport layer?
A)
port address
B)
logical address
C)
specific address
D)
physical address

Correct Answer :   port address

Explanation : A port number is a way to identify a specific process to which an Internet or other network message is to be forwarded when it arrives at a server. Some examples of port numbers are port 20 which is used for FTP data, port 22 which is used for SSH remote login ,and port 23 which is used for TELNET.

60 .
Network congestion occurs _______
A)
in case of traffic overloading
B)
in case of transfer failure
C)
when a system terminates
D)
when connection between two nodes terminates

Correct Answer :   in case of traffic overloading

Explanation : Network congestion occurs when traffic in the network is more than the network could handle. To avoid network congestion, the network management uses various open-loop and closed-loop congestion control techniques.

61 .
Which of the following networks extends a private network across public networks?
A)
local area network
B)
storage area network
C)
virtual private network
D)
enterprise private network

Correct Answer :   virtual private network

Explanation : A virtual private network extends a private network across a public network, and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network.VPN provides enhanced security and online anonymity to users on the internet. It is also used to unblock websites which are unavailable in certain regions.

62 .
Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router?
A)
line con 0
B)
line vty 0 4
C)
line aux 0 4
D)
line telnet 0 4

Correct Answer :   line vty 0 4

Explanation : The command line vty 0 4 places you in a prompt that will allow you to set or change your Telnet password.

63 .
Which of the following services use TCP?
1. DHCP
2. SMTP
3. HTTP
4. TFTP
5. FTP
A)
1 and 2
B)
2, 3 and 5
C)
1, 2 and 4
D)
1, 3 and 4

Correct Answer :   2, 3 and 5

Explaination : SMTP, HTTP and FTP use TCP.

64 .
What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model?
A)
Internet
B)
Application
C)
Network Access
D)
Host-to-Host

Correct Answer :   Host-to-Host

Explanation : The four layers of the TCP/IP stack (also called the DoD model) are Application/Process, Host-to-Host, Internet, and Network Access. The Host-to-Host layer is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model.

65 .
Which of the following allows a router to respond to an ARP request that is intended for a remote host?
A)
Proxy ARP
B)
Gateway DP
C)
Inverse ARP (IARP)
D)
Reverse ARP (RARP)

Correct Answer :   Proxy ARP

Explanation : Proxy ARP can help machines on a subnet reach remote subnets without configuring routing or a default gateway.

66 .
The DoD model (also called the TCP/IP stack) has four layers. Which layer of the DoD model is equivalent to the Network layer of the OSI model?
A)
Internet
B)
Application
C)
Host-to-Host
D)
Network Access

Correct Answer :   Internet

Explanation : The four layers of the DoD model are Application/Process, Host-to-Host, Internet, and Network Access. The Internet layer is equivalent to the Network layer of the OSI model.

67 .
Which of the following is the decimal and hexadecimal equivalents of the binary number 10011101?
A)
159, 0x9F
B)
185, 0xB9
C)
157, 0x9D
D)
155, 0x9B

Correct Answer :   157, 0x9D

Explanation :

To turn a binary number into decimal, you just have to add the values of each bit that is a 1. The values of 10011101 are 128, 16, 8, 4, and 1. 128 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 1 = 157.
 
Hexadecimal is a base-16 number system. The values of hexadecimal are 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, A, B, C, D, E, F-16 characters total, from which to create all the numbers you'll ever need. So, if 1001 in binary is 9, then the hexadecimal equivalent is 9. Since we then have 1101, which is 13 in binary, the hexadecimal answer is D and the complete hexadecimal answer is 0x9D.

68 .
Which of the following are TCP/IP protocols used at the Application layer of the OSI model?
 
1. IP
2. TCP
3. Telnet
4. FTP
5. TFTP
A)
1 and 3
B)
1, 3 and 5
C)
1, 2 and 4
D)
3, 4 and 5

Correct Answer :   3, 4 and 5

Explaination : Telnet, File Transfer Protocol (FTP), and Trivial FTP (TFTP) are all Application layer protocols. IP is a Network layer protocol. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a Transport layer protocol.

69 .
Which of the following describe the DHCP Discover message?
 
1. It uses FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF as a layer 2 broadcast.
2. It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol.
3. It uses TCP as the Transport layer protocol.
4. It does not use a layer 2 destination address.
A)
1 only
B)
1 and 2
C)
3 and 4
D)
4 only

Correct Answer :   1 and 2

Explaination : A client that sends out a DHCP Discover message in order to receive an IP address sends out a broadcast at both layer 2 and layer 3. The layer 2 broadcast is all Fs in hex, or FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. The layer 3 broadcast is 255.255.255.255, which means all networks and all hosts. DHCP is connectionless, which means it uses User Datagram Protocol (UDP) at the Transport layer, also called the Host-to-Host layer.

70 .
You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information. Which protocol will you use to accomplish this?
A)
ARP
B)
DHCP
C)
SMTP
D)
SNMP

Correct Answer :   DHCP

Explanation : Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to provide IP information to hosts on your network. DHCP can provide a lot of information, but the most common is IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information.

71 .
Which of the following is private IP address?
A)
12.0.0.1
B)
172.15.14.36
C)
168.172.19.39
D)
192.168.24.43

Correct Answer :   192.168.24.43

Explanation : Class A private address range is 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255. Class B private address range is 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255, and Class C private address range is 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255.

72 .
Which class of IP address provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per network ID?
A)
Class A
B)
Class B
C)
Class C
D)
Class D

Correct Answer :   Class C

Explanation : A Class C network address has only 8 bits for defining hosts: 2² - 2 = 254.

73 .
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets?
 
1. They acknowledge receipt of a TCP segment.
2. They guarantee datagram delivery.
3. They can provide hosts with information about network problems.
4. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
A)
3 and 4
B)
2 and 3
C)
2, 3 and 4
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   3 and 4

Explaination : Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is used to send error messages through the network, but they do not work alone. Every segment or ICMP payload must be encapsulated within an IP datagram (or packet).

74 .
Which of the following are layers in the TCP/IP model?
 
1. Application
2. Session
3. Transport
4. Internet
5. Data Link
6. Physical
A)
1 and 2
B)
2, 3 and 5
C)
1, 3 and 4
D)
3, 4 and 5

Correct Answer :   1, 3 and 4

Explaination : This seems like a hard question at first because it doesn't make sense. The listed answers are from the OSI model and the question asked about the TCP/IP protocol stack (DoD model). However, let's just look for what is wrong. First, the Session layer is not in the TCP/IP model; neither are the Data Link and Physical layers. This leaves us with the Transport layer (Host-to-Host in the DoD model), Internet layer (Network layer in the OSI), and Application layer (Application/Process in the DoD).

75 .
Which layer 4 protocol is used for a Telnet connection?
A)
TCP
B)
UDP
C)
IP
D)
TCP/IP

Correct Answer :   TCP

Explanation : Although Telnet does use TCP and IP (TCP/IP), the question specifically asks about layer 4, and IP works at layer 3. Telnet uses TCP at layer 4.

76 .
What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device?
A)
IP
B)
ARP
C)
ICMP
D)
RARP

Correct Answer :   ARP

Explanation : Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to find the hardware address from a known IP address.

77 .
Which of the following protocols uses both TCP and UDP?
A)
DNS
B)
FTP
C)
SMTP
D)
Telnet

Correct Answer :   DNS

Explanation : DNS uses TCP for zone exchanges between servers and UDP when a client is trying to resolve a hostname to an IP address.

78 .
What is the address range of a Class B network address in binary?
A)
0xxxxxxx
B)
01xxxxxx
C)
110xxxxx
D)
10xxxxxx

Correct Answer :   10xxxxxx

Explanation : The range of a Class B network address is 128-191. This makes our binary range 10xxxxxx.

79 .
If you use either Telnet or FTP, which is the highest layer you are using to transmit data?
A)
Session
B)
Transport
C)
Application
D)
Presentation

Correct Answer :   Application

Explanation : Both FTP and Telnet use TCP at the Transport layer; however, they both are Application layer protocols, so the Application layer is the best answer.

80 .
Which of the following commands sets the secret password to Cisco?
A)
enable secret cisco
B)
enable password Cisco
C)
enable secret password Cisco
D)
enable secret Cisco

Correct Answer :   enable secret Cisco

Explanation : The enable secret password is case sensitive, so the second option is wrong. To set the enable secret <password>, use the enable secret <password> command from global configuration mode.

81 .
Which of the following commands will display the current IP addressing and the layer 1 and 2 status of an interface?
 
1. show version
2. show protocols
3. show interfaces
4. show controllers
5. show ip interface
A)
1, 2 and 4
B)
2, 3 and 5
C)
3 and 4 only
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   2, 3 and 5

Explaination : The commands show protocols, show interfaces, and show ip interface will show you the layer 1 and 2 status and the IP addresses of your router's interfaces.

82 .
Which of the following commands displays the configurable parameters and statistics of all interfaces on a router?
A)
show versions
B)
show interfaces
C)
show startup-config
D)
show running-config

Correct Answer :   show interfaces

Explanation : With the show interfaces command, you can view the configurable parameters, get statistics for the interfaces on the router, verify if the interfaces are shut down, and see the IP address of each interface.

83 .
Which of the following commands will configure all the default VTY ports on a router?
A)
Router(config)#line vty 0 4
B)
Router#line vty 0 4
C)
Router(config)#line vty all
D)
Router(config-if)#line console 0

Correct Answer :   Router(config)#line vty 0 4

Explanation : From global configuration mode, use the line vty 0 4 command to set all five default VTY lines.

84 .
What command do you type to save the configuration stored in RAM to NVRAM?
A)
Router#copy starting to running
B)
Router(config)#copy current to starting
C)
Router#copy run startup
D)
Router(config)#copy running-config startup-config

Correct Answer :   Router#copy run startup

Explanation : To copy the running-config to NVRAM so that it will be used if the router is restarted, use the copy running-config startup-config command (copy run start for short).

85 .
You type Router#sh ru and receive an % ambiguous command error. Why did you receive this message?
A)
There is no show command that starts with ru.
B)
The command requires additional options or parameters.
C)
The command is being executed from the wrong router mode.
D)
There is more than one show command that starts with the letters ru.

Correct Answer :   There is more than one show command that starts with the letters ru.

Explaination : The % ambiguous command error means that there is more then one possible command that starts with ru. Use a question mark to find the correct command.

86 .
If you wanted administrators to see a message when logging into the router, which command would you use?
A)
message motd
B)
message banner motd
C)
banner motd
D)
banner message motd

Correct Answer :   banner motd

Explanation : The typical banner is a Message Of The Day (MOTD) and is set by using the global configuration mode command banner motd.

87 .
Which command will show you whether a DTE or a DCE cable is plugged into serial 0?
A)
sh int s0
B)
show controllers serial 0
C)
sh int serial 0
D)
show serial 0 controllers

Correct Answer :   show controllers serial 0

Explanation : The show controllers serial 0 command will show you whether either a DTE or DCE cable is connected to the interface. If it is a DCE connection, you need to add clocking with the clock rate command.

88 .
If you delete the contents of NVRAM and reboot the router, what mode will you be in?
A)
Setup mode
B)
Global mode
C)
Privileged mode
D)
NVRAM loaded mode

Correct Answer :   Setup mode

Explanation : If you delete the startup-config and reload the router, the router will automatically enter setup mode. You can also type setup from privileged mode at any time.

89 .
You want to totally reinitialize the router and replace the current running-config with the current startup-config. What command will you use?
A)
reload
B)
copy start run
C)
copy run start
D)
replace run start

Correct Answer :   reload

90 .
What is the problem with an interface if you type show interface serial 0 and receive the following message? "Serial0 is administratively down, line protocol is down."
A)
No cable is attached.
B)
The administrator is pinging from the interface.
C)
The keepalives are different times.
D)
The administrator has the interface shut down.

Correct Answer :   The administrator has the interface shut down.

Explanation : If an interface is shut down, the show interface command will show the interface as administratively shut down. (It is possible that no cable is attached, but you can't tell that from this message.)

91 .
How many simultaneous Telnet sessions does a Cisco router support by default?
A)
2
B)
3
C)
4
D)
5

Correct Answer :   5

Explanation : Cisco routers, if they do not have the Enterprise edition of the IOS, will default to 5 simultaneous Telnet sessions.

92 .
You need to find the broadcast address used on a LAN on your router. What command will you type into the router from user mode to find the broadcast address?
A)
show protocols
B)
show interfaces
C)
show startup-config
D)
show running-config

Correct Answer :   show interfaces

Explanation : The command show ip protocols will actually show you the broadcast address for each interface - too bad it isn't a possible answer. Your best answer is show interfaces, which will provide the IP address and mask for each interface.

93 .
The physical layer is concerned with _____
A)
port to port delivery
B)
process to process delivery
C)
bit-by-bit delivery
D)
application to application delivery

Correct Answer :   bit-by-bit delivery

Explanation : Physical layer deals with bit to bit delivery in networking. The data unit in the physical layer is bits. Process to process delivery or the port to port delivery is dealt in the transport layer. The various transmission mediums aid the physical layer in performing its functions.

94 .
Which transmission media provides the highest transmission speed in a network?
A)
coaxial cable
B)
optical fiber
C)
electrical cable
D)
twisted pair cable

Correct Answer :   optical fiber

Explanation : Fiber optics is considered to have the highest transmission speed among the all mentioned above. The fiber optics transmission runs at 1000Mb/s. It is called as 1000Base-Lx whereas IEEE standard for it is 802.3z. It is popularly used for modern day network connections due to its high transmission rate.

95 .
The network layer is concerned with __________ of data.
A)
packets
B)
bytes
C)
bits
D)
frames

Correct Answer :   packets

Explanation : In computer networks, the data from the application layer is sent to the transport layer and is converted to segments. These segments are then transferred to the network layer and these are called packets. These packets are then sent to data link layer where they are encapsulated into frames. These frames are then transferred to physical layer where the frames are converted to bits.

96 .
A 4 byte IP address consists of _______
A)
Only host address
B)
Only network address
C)
Network address & MAC address
D)
Network address & Host address

Correct Answer :   Network address & Host address

Explanation : An ip address which is 32 bits long, that means it is of 4 bytes and is composed of a network and host portion and it depends on address class. The size of the host address and network address depends upon the class of the address in classful IP addressing.

97 .
The data link layer takes the packets from _________ and encapsulates them into frames for transmission.
A)
network layer
B)
transport layer
C)
physical layer
D)
application layer

Correct Answer :   network layer

Explanation : In computer networks, the data from application layer is sent to transport layer and is converted to segments. These segments are then transferred to the network layer and these are called packets. These packets are then sent to data link layer where they are encapsulated into frames. These frames are then transferred to physical layer where the frames are converted to bits. Error control and flow control data is inserted in the frames at the data link layer.

98 .
Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend upon the type of medium?
A)
error control sublayer
B)
logical link control sublayer
C)
media access control sublayer
D)
network interface control sublayer

Correct Answer :   media access control sublayer

Explanation : Media access control (MAC) deals with transmission of data packets to and from the network-interface card, and also to and from another remotely shared channel. The MAC sublayer also prevents collision using protocols like CSMA/CD.

99 .
Header of a frame generally contains ________
A)
addresses
B)
frame identifier
C)
synchronization bytes
D)
all of the above

Correct Answer :   all of the above

Explanation : In a frame, the header is a part of the data that contains all the required information about the transmission of the file. It contains information like synchronization bytes, addresses, frame identifier etc. It also contains error control information for reducing the errors in the transmitted frames.

100 .
Automatic repeat request error management mechanism is provided by ________
A)
media access control sublayer
B)
logical link control sublayer
C)
network interface control sublayer
D)
application access control sublayer

Correct Answer :   logical link control sublayer

Explanation : The logical link control is a sublayer of data link layer whose main function is to manage traffic, flow and error control. The automatic repeat request error management mechanism is provided by the LLC when an error is found in the received frame at the receiver’s end to inform the sender to re-send the frame.

101 .
CRC stands for ________
A)
Code Repeat Check
B)
Cyclic Redundancy Check
C)
Cyclic Repeat Check
D)
Code Redundancy Check

Correct Answer :   Cyclic Redundancy Check

Explanation : Cyclic Redundancy Check is a code that is added to a data which helps us to identify any error that occurred during the transmission of the data. CRC is only able to detect errors, not correct them. CRC is inserted in the frame trailer.

102 .
Which of the following is the multiple access protocol for channel access control?
A)
CSMA/CD
B)
CSMA/CA
C)
Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA
D)
HDLC

Correct Answer :   Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA

Explanation : In CSMA/CD, it deals with detection of collision after collision has occurred, whereas CSMA/CA deals with preventing collision. CSMA/CD is abbreviation for Carrier Sensing Multiple Access/Collision detection. CSMA/CA is abbreviation for Carrier Sensing Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance. These protocols are used for efficient multiple channel access.

103 .
The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing acknowledgements so that they can be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is called ______
A)
piggybacking
B)
parity check
C)
fletcher’s checksum
D)
cyclic redundancy check

Correct Answer :   piggybacking

Explanation : Piggybacking is a technique in which the acknowledgment is temporarily delayed so as to be hooked with the next outgoing data frame. It saves a lot of channel bandwidth as in non-piggybacking system, some bandwidth is reserved for acknowledgement.

104 .
Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before passing it to ______
A)
physical layer
B)
data link layer
C)
network layer
D)
application layer

Correct Answer :   network layer

Explanation : The flow of data in the OSI model flows in following manner Application -> Presentation -> Session -> Transport -> Network -> Data Link -> Physical. Each and every layer has its own set of functions and protocols to ensure efficient network performance.

105 .
Which of the following are transport layer protocols used in networking?
A)
TCP and FTP
B)
UDP and HTTP
C)
HTTP and FTP
D)
TCP and UDP

Correct Answer :   TCP and UDP

Explanation : Both TCP and UDP are transport layer protocol in networking. TCP is an abbreviation for Transmission Control Protocol and UDP is an abbreviation for User Datagram Protocol. TCP is connection oriented whereas UDP is connectionless.

106 .
Socket-style API for windows is called _______
A)
wins
B)
wsock
C)
sockwi
D)
winsock

Correct Answer :   winsock

Explanation : Winsock is a programming interface which deals with input output requests for internet applications in windows OS. It defines how windows network software should access network services.

107 .
Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?
A)
structured stream transport
B)
datagram congestion control protocol
C)
user congestion control protocol
D)
stream control transmission protocol

Correct Answer :   datagram congestion control protocol

Explanation : The datagram congestion control is a transport layer protocol which deals with reliable connection setup, teardown, congestion control, explicit congestion notification, and feature negotiation. It is used in modern day systems where there are really high chances of congestion. The protocol was last updated in the year 2008.

108 .
A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.
A)
port
B)
pipe
C)
node
D)
protocol

Correct Answer :   port

Explanation : Just as the IP address identifies the computer, the network port identifies the application or service running on the computer. A port number is 16 bits. The combination of IP address preceded with the port number is called the socket address.

109 .
In virtual circuit network each packet contains ______
A)
Only source address
B)
Only destination address
C)
A short VC number
D)
Full source and destination address

Correct Answer :   A short VC number

Explanation : A short VC number also called as VCID (virtual circuit identifier) is a type of identifier which is used to distinguish between several virtual circuits in a connection oriented circuit switched network. Each virtual circuit is used to transfer data over a larger packet switched network.

110 .
Which of the following routing algorithms can be used for network layer design?
A)
Distance vector routing
B)
Link state routing
C)
Shortest path algorithm
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above

Explanation : The routing algorithm is what decides where a packet should go next. There are several routing techniques like shortest path algorithm, static and dynamic routing, decentralized routing, distance vector routing, link state routing, Hierarchical routing etc. The routing algorithms go hand in hand with the operations of all the routers in the networks. The routers are the main participants in these algorithms.

111 .
A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is called _______
A)
spider tree
B)
special tree
C)
spanning tree
D)
spider structure

Correct Answer :   spanning tree

Explanation : Spanning tree protocol (STP) is a network protocol that creates a loop free logical topology for ethernet networks. It is a layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in your network.

112 .
The network layer protocol for internet is _______
A)
ethernet
B)
internet protocol
C)
file transfer protocol
D)
hypertext transfer protocol

Correct Answer :   internet protocol

Explanation : There are several protocols used in Network layer. Some of them are IP, ICMP, CLNP, ARP, IPX, HRSP etc. Hypertext transfer protocol is for application layer and ethernet protocol is for data link layer.

113 .
ICMP is primarily used for _______
A)
routing
B)
forwarding
C)
addressing
D)
error and diagnostic functions

Correct Answer :   error and diagnostic functions

Explanation : ICMP abbreviation for Internet Control Message Protocol is used by networking devices to send error messages and operational information indicating a host or router cannot be reached. ICMP operates over the IP packet to provide error reporting functionality as IP by itself cannot report errors.

114 .
The portion of physical layer that interfaces with the media access control sublayer is called _______
A)
physical signalling sublayer
B)
physical data sublayer
C)
physical transport sublayer
D)
physical address sublayer

Correct Answer :   physical signalling sublayer

Explanation : The portion of physical layer that interfaces with the medium access control sublayer is Physical Signaling Sublayer. The main function of this layer is character encoding, reception, decoding and performs optional isolation functions. It handles which media connection the signal should be forwarded to physically.

115 .
The physical layer provides ______
A)
specification for IR over optical fiber
B)
electrical specification of transmission line signal level
C)
mechanical specifications of electrical connectors and cables
D)
all of the above

Correct Answer :   all of the above

Explanation : Anything dealing with a network cable or the standards in use – including pins, connectors and the electric current used is dealt in the physical layer (Layer 1). Physical layer deals with bit to bit delivery of the data aided by the various transmission mediums.

116 .
Wireless transmission of signals can be done via _____
A)
infrared
B)
radio waves
C)
microwaves
D)
all of the above

Correct Answer :   all of the above

Explanation : Wireless transmission is carried out by radio waves, microwaves and IR waves. These waves range from 3 Khz to above 300 Ghz and are more suitable for wireless transmission. Radio waves can penetrate through walls and are used in radio communications, microwaves and infrared (IR) waves cannot penetrate through walls and are used for satellite communications and device communications respectively.

117 .
The physical layer translates logical communication requests from the ______ into hardware specific operations.
A)
network layer
B)
data link layer
C)
trasnport layer
D)
application layer

Correct Answer :   data link layer

Explanation : Physical layer accepts data or information from the data link layer and converts it into hardware specific operations so as to transfer the message through physical cables. Some examples of the cables used are optical fiber cables, twisted pair cables and co-axial cables.

118 .
Physical or logical arrangement of network is ______
A)
Routing
B)
Control
C)
Topology
D)
Networking

Correct Answer :   Topology

Explanation : Topology in networks is the structure or pattern in which each and every node in the network is connected. There are many topologies in networking like bus, tree, ring, star, mesh, and hybrid topology. There is no particular best topology and a suitable topology can be chosen based on the kind of application of the network .

119 .
Which network topology requires a central controller or hub?
A)
Star
B)
Bus
C)
Ring
D)
Mesh

Correct Answer :   Star

Explanation : In star topology, no computer is connected to another computer directly but all the computers are connected to a central hub. Every message sent from a source computer goes through the hub and the hub then forwards the message only to the intended destination computer.

120 .
Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is _____
A)
LAN
B)
MAN
C)
WAN
D)
PAN

Correct Answer :   WAN

Explanation : WAN is the abbreviation for Wide Area Network. This network extends over a large geographical area. WANs are used to connect cities, states or even countries. A wireless connection is required to build a WAN. The best example of WAN is the Internet.

121 .
_____ is the multiplexing technique that shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency.
A)
TDM
B)
PDM
C)
FDM
D)
None of the Above

Correct Answer :   FDM

Explanation : FDM is an abbreviation for Frequency Division Multiplexing. This technique is used when the bandwidth of the channel is greater than the combined bandwidth of all the signals which are to be transmitted. The channel is active at all times unless a collision occurs with another channel trying to use the same frequency. Some other multiplexing techniques are Time division multiplexing and Phase division multiplexing.

122 .
The attacker using a network of compromised devices is known as _____
A)
D-net
B)
Telnet
C)
Internet
D)
Botnet

Correct Answer :   Botnet

Explanation : Botnet is a network of compromised devices used by the attacker without the owner’s knowledge to perform unethical activities such as spamming. The attacker usually uses the least secure devices to create the botnet.

123 .
The DoS attack, in which the attacker establishes a large number of half-open or fully open TCP connections at the target host is _______
A)
UDP Flooding
B)
Vulnerability Attack
C)
Bandwidth Flooding
D)
Connection Flooding

Correct Answer :   Connection Flooding

Explanation : In Vulnerability attack, the attacker exploits the vulnerable control points of the network to deny access to the victims. In Bandwidth flooding, the attacker intentionally uses up all the bandwidth by flooding the victim with a deluge of packets and makes sure that the victim can’t use any bandwidth. In UDP flooding, too many UDP packets are sent by the attacker to the victim at random ports.

124 .
The DoS attack, in which the attacker sends deluge of packets to the targeted host is ________
A)
Bandwidth flooding
B)
UDP flooding
C)
Vulnerability attack
D)
Connection flooding

Correct Answer :   Bandwidth flooding

Explanation : In Bandwidth flooding, the attacker floods the victim machine with a deluge of packets to make sure that no bandwidth is available. The victim then cannot utilize the complete bandwidth to perform its operation.

125 .
Packet sniffers involve ______
A)
Active receiver
B)
Passive receiver
C)
Legal receiver
D)
Partially-active receiver

Correct Answer :   Passive receiver

Explanation : The function of packet sniffers is to just silently receive the packets flowing in the channel. If they inject any packets into the channel, they might alert the other users about the intrusion.

126 .
Firewalls are often configured to block ________
A)
TCP traffic
B)
Sensitive traffic
C)
UDP traffic
D)
Best-effort traffic

Correct Answer :   UDP traffic

Explanation : UDP is more vulnerable to attacks, so firewalls are often configured to block suspicious UDP traffic.

127 .
In TDM, slots are further divided into _____
A)
Bits
B)
Packets
C)
Frames
D)
Seconds

Correct Answer :   Frames

Explanation : TDM is the abbreviation for Time division multiplexing. It is technique for combining several low rate channels to a single high rate channel. For a certain time slot, the several channels could use the maximum bandwidth. Each channel is inactive for a period of time too. Some other multiplexing techniques are Frequency division multiplexing and Phase division multiplexing.

128 .
If link transmits 4000frames per second, and each slot has 8 bits, the transmission rate of circuit this TDM is _________
A)
32kbps
B)
32bps
C)
500bps
D)
500kbps

Correct Answer :   32kbps

Explanation :

Transmission rate= frame rate * number of bits in a slot.
Given: Frame rate = 4000/sec and number of bits in slot = 8
Thus, Transmission rate = (4000 * 8) bps
= 32000bps
= 32kbps

129 .
Which multiplexing technique used to transmit digital signals?
A)
FDM
B)
WDM
C)
FDM & WDM
D)
TDM

Correct Answer :   TDM

Explanation : TDM abbreviation for Time Division Multiplexing is a method used for digital signals. Whereas FDM and WDM abbreviation for Frequency Division Multiplexing, and Wavelength Division Multiplexing, are used for analog signals. TDM is used in applications like ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) and PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network).

130 .
Multiplexing is used in _______
A)
Data switching
B)
Circuit switching
C)
Packet switching
D)
Packet & Circuit switching

Correct Answer :   Circuit switching

Explanation : Circuit switching is a switching method by which one can obtain a physical path between end points. Circuit switching method is also called a connection oriented network. Two nodes must be physically and logically connected to each other to create a circuit switching network.

131 .
The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _____
A)
Duplexing
B)
Multiplexing
C)
Micropleixng
D)
Fully duplexing

Correct Answer :   Multiplexing

Explanation : Multiplexing is a method using which one can send multiples signals through a shared medium at the same time. This helps in using less resources and thus saving the cost of sending messages.

132 .
Coaxial cable consists of _______ concentric copper conductors.
A)
4
B)
3
C)
2
D)
1

Correct Answer :   2

Explanation : Coaxial cable has an inner conductor surrounded by a insulating layer, which is surrounded by a conducting shield. Coaxial cable is used to carry high frequency signals with low losses.

133 .
Fiber optics posses following properties _____
A)
Very hard to tap
B)
Very less signal attenuation
C)
Immune electromagnetic interference
D)
All of the Above

Correct Answer :   All of the Above

Explanation : In fibre optics the transmission of information is in the form of light or photons. Due to all above properties mentioned in options fibre optics can be submerged in water and are used at more risk environments.

134 .
Radio channels are attractive medium because _____
A)
Can penetrate walls
B)
Can carry signals for long distance
C)
Connectivity can be given to mobile user
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above

Explanation : Radio channels can penetrate walls, can be used to provide connectivity to mobile users and can also carry signals for long distances.

135 .
Geostationary satellites _____
A)
Are placed at a fixed point above the earth
B)
Rotate the earth about a fixed axis
C)
Rotate the earth about a varying axis
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   Are placed at a fixed point above the earth

Explanation : They are placed in orbit at 36,000km above Earth’s surface.

136 .
_______ allows LAN users to share computer programs and data.
A)
Network
B)
File server
C)
Print server
D)
Communication server

Correct Answer :   File server

Explanation : A file server allows LAN users to share computer programs and data. It uses the File Transfer Protocol to provide this feature on ports 20 and 21. The file server works as a medium for the transfer.

137 .
With respect to physical media, STP cables stands for _________
A)
Spanning Tree Protocol Cable
B)
Shielded Two Power Cable
C)
Shielded Twisted Pair Cable
D)
Static Transport Protocol Cable

Correct Answer :   Shielded Twisted Pair Cable

Explanation : For physical media, STP cable stands for Shielded twisted pair cable. 100 Mbps is the max data capacity of STP cable and its default connector is RJ45. It is popularly used in LANs due to its ease of maintenance and installation.

138 .
The __________ portion of LAN management software restricts access, records user activities and audit data, etc.
A)
Security management
B)
Recovery management
C)
Performance management
D)
Configuration management

Correct Answer :   Security management

Explanation : The Security management portion of LAN management software restricts access, records user activities, and audit data. It is responsible for controlling access to the network based on predefined policy. The security management ensures authentication, confidentiality, and integrity in the LAN.

139 .
What is the max length of the Shielded twisted pair cable?
A)
100 ft
B)
200 ft
C)
100 m
D)
200 m

Correct Answer :   100 m

Explanation : The max the Shielded twisted pair cable is 100 meters. If the length exceeds 100 meters, the loss of signals flowing through the cable would be really high. Thus, STP cable is more suitable for smaller networks like LANs.

140 .
What is the max data transfer rate of STP cables?
A)
10 Mbps
B)
100 Mbps
C)
1000 Mbps
D)
10000 Mbps

Correct Answer :   100 Mbps

Explanation : 100 Mbps is the max data transfer rate that can be handled by STP cables, and its default connector is RJ-45. 100 Mbps is a feasible data transfer rate for small networks like LANs.

141 .
Which connector does the STP cable use?
A)
BNC
B)
RJ-11
C)
RJ-33
D)
RJ-45

Correct Answer :   RJ-45

Explanation : RJ-45 is used for STP cable. 100 Mbps is the max data transfer rate that can be handled by STP. RJ-45 is popularly used to connect to modern-day routers, computer network cards, and other network devices.

142 .
What is the max data transfer rate for optical fiber cable?
A)
10 Mbps
B)
100 Mbps
C)
1000 Mbps
D)
10000 Mbps

Correct Answer :   10000 Mbps

Explanation : Fiber channel speeds have been increasing over the years. 10000 Mbps is the max data transfer rate for optical fiber cables. It is said to be the fastest among the other kinds of cables like STP cables and co-axial cables. People are now using optical fiber cables instead of STP cables for LANs due to their fast data transfer capability.

143 .
Which of the following architecture uses the CSMA/CD access method?
A)
Ethernet
B)
Router
C)
ARC net
D)
STP server

Correct Answer :   Ethernet

Explanation : Collision detection is not possible in Ethernet without extensions. Collision detection techniques for multiple access like CSMA/CD are used to detect collisions in the Ethernet architecture.

144 .
A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.
A)
Bit switched
B)
Line switched
C)
Circuit switched
D)
Packet switched

Correct Answer :   Circuit switched

Explanation : Circuit switching is connection oriented switching technique, whereas in the case of packet switching, it is connectionless. Circuit switching is implemented in the Physical layer, whereas packet switching is implemented in the Network layer. Internet too is based on the concept of circuit switching.

145 .
What are the Methods to move data through a network of links and switches?
A)
Line switching and bit switching
B)
Packet switching and Circuit switching
C)
Circuit switching and Line switching
D)
Packet switching and Line switching

Correct Answer :   Packet switching and Circuit switching

Explanation : Packet switching and Circuit switching are two different types of switching methods used to connect the multiple communicating devices with one another. Packet switching is used in conventional LAN systems and circuit switching is used in telephonic systems.

146 .
The required resources for communication between end systems are reserved for the duration of the session between end systems in ________ method.
A)
Line switching
B)
Packet switching
C)
Circuit switching
D)
Frequency switching

Correct Answer :   Circuit switching

Explanation : In circuit switching, a physical path between the sender and receiver is established. This path is maintained until the connection is needed. Circuit switching is implemented in the Physical layer and is used in telephonic systems.

147 .
As the resources are reserved between two communicating end systems in circuit switching, ___________ is achieved.
A)
reliability
B)
authentication
C)
store and forward
D)
guaranteed constant rate

Correct Answer :   guaranteed constant rate

Explanation : Circuit switching is connection oriented and is always implemented in the physical layer. Once a path is set, all transmission occurs through the same path. It is used since the early times in telephonic systems.

148 .
The default connection type used by HTTP is _____
A)
Persistent
B)
Non-persistent
C)
Can be either persistent or non-persistent depending on connection request
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Persistent

Explanation : By default the http connection is issued with persistent connection. In persistent connection server leaves connection open after sending response. As little as one RTT (Time for a small packet to travel from client to server and back) is required for all referenced objects.

149 .
The time taken by a packet to travel from client to server and then back to the client is called _____
A)
JTT
B)
RTT
C)
PTT
D)
STT

Correct Answer :   RTT

Explanation : RTT stands for Round-Trip Time.

150 .
The HTTP request message is sent in _________ part of three-way handshake.
A)
First
B)
Second
C)
Third
D)
Fourth

Correct Answer :   Third

Explanation : In first step client sends a segment to establish a connection with the server. In the second the step the client waits for the acknowledgement to be received from the server. After receiving the acknowledgement, the client sends actual data in the third step.

151 .
The first line of HTTP request message is called ________
A)
Entity line
B)
Status line
C)
Request line
D)
Header line

Correct Answer :   Request line

Explanation : The line followed by request line are called header lines and status line is the initial part of response message.

152 .
The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified in _____ of HTTP message
A)
Header line
B)
Status line
C)
Entity body
D)
Request line

Correct Answer :   Request line

Explanation : It is specified in the method field of request line in the HTTP request message.

153 .
The ________ method when used in the method field, leaves entity body empty.
A)
GET
B)
PUT
C)
POST
D)
SEND

Correct Answer :   GET

Explanation : There are two methods which help to request a response from a server. Those are GET and POST. In GET method, the client requests data from server. In POST method the client submits data to be processed to the server.

154 .
The conditional GET mechanism
A)
Limits the number of response from a server
B)
Helps to keep a cache upto date
C)
Imposes conditions on the objects to be requested
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Helps to keep a cache upto date

Explanation : The HTTP protocol requests the server of the website its trying to access so that it can store its files, images etc. in cache memory. This request of asking the server for a document considering a specific parameter is called conditional GET Request.

155 .
Find the oddly matched HTTP status codes
A)
200 OK
B)
400 Bad Request
C)
301 Moved permanently
D)
304 Not Found

Correct Answer :   304 Not Found

Explanation : 404 Not Found.

156 .
Expansion of FTP is _____
A)
First Transfer Protocol
B)
Fast Transfer Protocol
C)
File Transfer Protocol
D)
Fine Transfer Protocol

Correct Answer :   File Transfer Protocol

Explanation : File Transfer Protocol is an application layer protocol used to share “files” between a server and a client. The protocol uses two separate ports for data and control connections: port 20 for data and port 21 for control.

157 .
FTP is built on _____ architecture.
A)
P2P
B)
Data centric
C)
Client-server
D)
Service oriented

Correct Answer :   Client-server

Explanation : An FTP connection includes a Server and a Client which wish to share a number of data files. The server can transfer files with multiple clients at the same time while the client communicates with only one server at a time.

158 .
FTP uses _________ parallel TCP connections to transfer a file.
A)
1
B)
2
C)
3
D)
4

Correct Answer :   2

Explanation : Control connection using FTP port: 21, and data connection using FTP port: 20. The FTP session is started or ended using port 21 and the actual data i.e. files are sent through port 20.

159 .
The commands, from client to server, and replies, from server to client, are sent across the control connection in ________ bit ASCII format.
A)
8
B)
7
C)
6
D)
5

Correct Answer :   7

Explanation : FTP was designed to transmit commands only in English characters that are possible with just 7 bits in ASCII. Even the media has to be converted to ASCII before transmission.

160 .
Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly matched.
A)
452 – Error writing file
B)
425 – Can’t open data connection
C)
331 – Username OK, Password Required
D)
452 – Can’t open data connection

Correct Answer :   452 – Can’t open data connection

Explanation : The correct response code for the message “Can’t open data connection” is 425. Response code 452 is sent usually when the connection is suddenly closed.

161 .
The password is sent to the server using ________ command.
A)
PASS
B)
PWORD
C)
PASSWD
D)
PASSWORD

Correct Answer :   PASS

Explanation : The PASS command, preceded by the username, completes the user’s identification for access control in an FTP session. Without the valid password, the user won’t be able to initiate the FTP connection.

162 .
When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ________
A)
Peer
B)
Master
C)
SMTP client
D)
SMTP server

Correct Answer :   SMTP client

Explanation : SMTP clients are the entities that send mails to other mail servers. The SMTP servers cannot send independent mails to other SMTP servers as an SMTP server. There are no masters or peers in SMTP as it is based on the client-server architecture.

163 .
Expansion of SMTP is ______
A)
Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
B)
Simple Message Transfer Protocol
C)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
D)
Simple Message Transmission Protocol

Correct Answer :   Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

Explanation : SMTP or Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is an application layer protocol used to transport e-mails over the Internet. Only 7-bit ASCII codes can be sent using SMTP.

164 .
In SMTP, the command to write receiver’s mail address is written with the command _______
A)
MAIL TO
B)
RCPT TO
C)
SEND TO
D)
RCVR TO

Correct Answer :   RCPT TO

Explanation : RCPT TO command is followed by the recipient’s mail address to specify where or to whom the mail is going to through the internet. If there is more than one receiver, the command is repeated for each address continually.

165 .
Internet mail places each object in _________
A)
One message
B)
Varies with number of objects
C)
Multiple messages for each object
D)
Separate messages for each object

Correct Answer :   One message

Explanation : It places all objects into one message as it wouldn’t be efficient enough if there are different messages for each object. The objects include the text and all the multimedia to be sent.

166 .
Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is ______
A)
50
B)
45
C)
35
D)
25

Correct Answer :   25

Explanation : The ports 15, 35 and 50 are all UDP ports and SMTP only uses TCP port 25 for reliability.

167 .
Which of the following is an example of user agents for e-mail?
A)
Tumblr
B)
Google
C)
Facebook
D)
Microsoft Outlook

Correct Answer :   Microsoft Outlook

Explanation : Among the options, only Microsoft Outlook is an e-mail agent. Google is a search engine and Facebook, and Tumblr are social networking platforms. Gmail and Alpine are some other examples of e-mail agent.

168 .
The entire hostname has a maximum of ______
A)
31 characters
B)
63 characters
C)
255 characters
D)
127 characters

Correct Answer :   255 characters

Explanation : An entire hostname can have a maximum of 255 characters. Although each label must be from 1 to 63 characters long. Host name is actually a label that is given to a device in a network.

169 .
A DNS client is called _______
A)
DNS handler
B)
DNS resolver
C)
DNS updater
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   DNS resolver

Explanation : DNS client also known as DNS resolver also known as DNS lookup helps to resolve DNS requests using an external DNS server.

170 .
Servers handle requests for other domains _______
A)
directly
B)
it is not possible
C)
Both (A) and (B)
D)
by contacting remote DNS server

Correct Answer :   by contacting remote DNS server

Explanation : Whenever a request is received at server from other domains, it handles this situation by contacting remote DNS server.

171 .
DNS database contains _______
A)
Name server records
B)
Hostname aliases
C)
Hostname-to-address records
D)
All of the Above

Correct Answer :   All of the Above

Explanation : Domain Name system not only deals with mapping IP addresses with the hostname but also deals with exchange of information in the server.

172 .
Wildcard domain names start with label _______
A)
*
B)
&
C)
#
D)
@

Correct Answer :   *

Explanation : A wildcard DNS record matches requests to a non existent domain name. This wildcard DNS record is specified by using asterisk “*” as the starting of a domain name.

173 .
The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are accredited by _______
A)
internet society
B)
internet architecture board
C)
internet research task force
D)
internet corporation for assigned names and numbers

Correct Answer :   internet corporation for assigned names and numbers

Explanation : The ICANN (Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers) deals with IP address space allocation, protocol identifier assignment, generic and country code Top Level domain name system management (gTLD and ccTLD).

174 .
Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for _____
A)
Secure data communication
B)
Remote command-line login
C)
Remote command execution
D)
All of the Above

Correct Answer :   All of the Above

Explanation : SSH provides high encryption and security features while communicating through a network. It is a cryptographic network protocol.

175 .
SSH can be used in ___________
A)
Windows
B)
Unix-like operating systems
C)
Both unix-like and windows systems
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Both unix-like and windows systems

Explanation : SSH isn’t confined to a certain network or operating system. It can be implemented over different networks and on different operating systems.

176 .
SSH uses ______ to authenticate the remote computer.
A)
private-key cryptography
B)
public-key cryptography
C)
both public-key & private-key
D)
any of public-key or private-key

Correct Answer :   public-key cryptography

Explanation : Public encryption key is slower but more flexible. Every cryptographic security system requires a private key for private access and a public key for location.

177 .
Which standard TCP port is assigned for contacting SSH servers?
A)
port 22
B)
port 23
C)
port 24
D)
port 25

Correct Answer :   port 22

Explanation : Port 22 is used for contacting ssh servers, used for file transfers (scp, sftp) and also port forwarding.

178 .
Which one of the following is a file transfer protocol using SSH?
A)
SCP
B)
SFTP
C)
Rsync
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above

Explanation : SCP (Secure copy protocol), SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) and Rsync all are file transfer protocols which are used by SSH.

179 .
SSH-2 does not contain _________
A)
transport layer
B)
connection layer
C)
physical layer
D)
user authentication layer

Correct Answer :   physical layer

Explanation : SSH2 is a more secure, portable and efficient version of SSH that includes SFTP, which is functionally similar to FTP, but is SSH2 encrypted.

180 .
SCP protocol is evolved from _______ over SSH.
A)
GCP protocol
B)
DHCP protocol
C)
RCP protocol
D)
MGCP protocol

Correct Answer :   RCP protocol

Explanation : RCP is the abbreviation for Rate Control Protocol is a congestion control algorithm for fast user response times.

181 .
Which one of the following authentication method is used by SSH?
A)
Password
B)
Public-key
C)
Host based
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above

Explanation : SSH used public key authentication, Password authentication, Host based authentication, keyboard authentication and authentication of servers.

182 .
DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides _______ to the client.
A)
IP address
B)
Url
C)
MAC address
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   IP address

Explanation : We use DHCP to allow the hosts to acquire their ip addresses dynamically which is better than visiting each and every host on the network and configure all of this information manually.

183 .
DHCP is used for ________
A)
IPv6
B)
IPv4
C)
Both IPv6 and IPv4
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Both IPv6 and IPv4

Explanation : DHCP is used for both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing. With DHCP you get to let the hosts know about the change dynamically, and hosts update their info themselves.

184 .
IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is____
A)
Not time dependent
B)
For a limited period
C)
For an unlimited period
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   For a limited period

Explanation : The IP address offered to a client is only for a limited period of time. There is actually a certain amount of time that the client can use and keep this IP address.

185 .
DHCP uses UDP port ____for sending data to the server.
A)
66
B)
67
C)
68
D)
69

Correct Answer :   67

Explanation : 67 is the UDP port number that is used as the destination port of a server. Whereas UDP port number 68 is used by the client.

186 .
The DHCP server can provide the _______ of the IP addresses.
A)
Static allocation
B)
Automatic allocation
C)
Dynamic allocation
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above

Explanation : When a host acquires multiple offers of IP addresses from different DHCP servers, the host will broadcast a dhcp request identifying the server whose offer has been accepted.

187 .
What is DHCP snooping?
A)
Algorithm for DHCP
B)
Encryption of the DHCP server requests
C)
Techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure

Explanation : DHCP snooping is a security feature that is used in OS of a network in the layer 2. This technology prevents unauthorized DHCP servers offering IP addresses to DHCP clients.

188 .
If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific ______ can access the network.
A)
IP address
B)
MAC address
C)
Both MAC address and IP address
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   Both MAC address and IP address

Explanation : The DHCP snooping is done to prevent unauthorized IP addresses being offered by unauthorized servers. This features allows only specific mac addresses and IP addresses to access the network.

189 .
IPSec is designed to provide security at the _______
A)
Network layer
B)
Session layer
C)
Transport layer
D)
Application layer

Correct Answer :   Network layer

Explanation : IPSec is a set of protocols used to provide authentication, data integrity and confidentiality between two machines in an IP network. In the TCP/IP model, it provides security at the IP layer i.e. the network layer.

190 .
In tunnel mode, IPSec protects the ______
A)
IP trailer
B)
Entire IP packet
C)
IP header
D)
IP payload

Correct Answer :   Entire IP packet

Explanation : In the tunnel mode, IPSec adds control bits into the packets to encrypt the entire packet between the IPSec endpoints. Using encryption, it provides secure communication between the two endpoints.

191 .
Which component is included in IP security?
A)
Authentication Header (AH)
B)
Internet key Exchange (IKE)
C)
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
D)
All of the Above

Correct Answer :   All of the Above

Explanation :

AH ensures that there is no retransmission of data from an unauthorized source, and protects against data tampering. ESP provides with content protection and ensures that there is integrity and confidentiality for the message. IKE is used to make sure that only the intended sender and receiver can access the message.

192 .
WPA2 is used for security in _______
A)
Wi-Fi
B)
Email
C)
Ethernet
D)
Bluetooth

Correct Answer :   Wi-Fi

Explanation : WPA2 or WiFi Protected Access 2 is a security protocol used to provide users and firms with strong data security and protection for their wireless networks (WiFi) to give them confidence that only authorized users can access their network.

193 .
Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in ______
A)
FTP security
B)
Email security
C)
WiFi security
D)
Browser security

Correct Answer :   Email security

Explanation : PGP is an encryption method used in e-mail security to encrypt and decrypt the content of an e-mail transmitted over the internet. It makes sure that the message cannot be stolen by other unauthorized users.

194 .
When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no authority giving that information, then it is called _____
A)
DNS lookup
B)
DNS hijacking
C)
DNS spoofing
D)
DNS authorizing

Correct Answer :   DNS spoofing

Explanation : In DNS spoofing, also known as DNS cache poisoning, an attacker gets the valid credentials from a victim by spoofing the intended resource, and tricking the victim to give his/her valid authorization credentials.

195 .
Traffic in a VPN is NOT __________
A)
Invisible from public networks
B)
Logically separated from other traffic
C)
Restricted to a single protocol in IPsec
D)
Accessible from unauthorized public networks

Correct Answer :   Accessible from unauthorized public networks

Explanation : Traffic in a VPN is not accessible from any unauthorized public networks because it is secured with the masking IP address. This provides the benefit of access to blocked resources to the users.

196 .
VPNs are financially speaking ______
A)
Usually cheaper than leased lines
B)
Always cheaper than leased lines
C)
Always more expensive than leased lines
D)
Usually more expensive than leased lines

Correct Answer :   Usually cheaper than leased lines

Explanation : The services of a VPN are cheaper for moderate to large scale institutional networks than the services of leased lines. Though for a small scale network, it does not prove to be as beneficial as the costs are not reduced to a great degree as compared to leased lines.

197 .
Which layer of the OSI reference model does IPsec work at?
A)
Layer 1
B)
Layer 2
C)
Layer 3
D)
Layer 4

Correct Answer :   Layer 3

Explanation : IPSec is a set of protocols used to provide authentication, data integrity and confidentiality between two machines in an IP network. It operates in the network layer.

198 .
L2F was developed by which company?
A)
Cisco
B)
IETF
C)
Microsoft
D)
Blizzard Entertainment

Correct Answer :   Cisco

Explanation : L2F stands for Layer 2 Forwarding protocol. It was designed by Cisco to tunnel PPP traffic, helping create VPNs over the internet.

199 .
ESP (Encapsulating Security Protocol) is defined in which of the following standards?
A)
PPP
B)
IPsec
C)
L2TP
D)
PPTP

Correct Answer :   IPsec

Explanation : ESP is a security component of IPSec. ESP provides content protection and ensures that there is integrity and confidentiality of the message. The other security components of IPSec are Authentication Header and Internet Key Exchange.

200 .
Which layer 3 protocols can be transmitted over an L2TP VPN?
A)
Only IP
B)
Only IPX
C)
Only ICMP
D)
IP and IPX

Correct Answer :   IP and IPX

Explanation : L2TP stands for Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol. It is used to tunnel all the L2 traffic on an IP network and is able to transmit network layer’s IP and IPX protocol data.

201 .
What protocol is NOT used in the operation of a VPN?
A)
L2TP
B)
IPsec
C)
PPTP
D)
YMUM

Correct Answer :   YMUM

Explanation : PPTP is a tunneling protocol which was initially used for the creation of VPNs. IPSec is used in encrypting the traffic flowing in the VPN. L2TP is used to tunnel all the L2 traffic on the VPN.

202 .
Storage management comprises of ______
A)
Disk operation
B)
Data protection
C)
SAN Management
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above

Explanation : SAN management, data protection and disk operation are the main components of the Storage Management Initiative Specification. SMI-S was developed by the Storage Networking Industry Association.

203 .
Which protocols are used for Storage management?
A)
MIB
B)
LDAP
C)
SNMP
D)
POP3

Correct Answer :   SNMP

Explanation : Simple Network Management Protocol is used for storage management. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is used to access or locate information about directories and other resources on a network. Post Office Protocol 3 is used for e-mailing on the internet. Management Information Base is a part of SNMP and contains hierarchically organized information.

204 .
How do Storage administrators ensure secure access to storage devices?
A)
By using Zoning
B)
By keeping devices when used
C)
By keeping devices shutdown when not in use
D)
By putting a physical lock on the storage device

Correct Answer :   By using Zoning

Explanation : Zoning is a method in SAN that can be used by a storage administrator to specify who can see what in the SAN. Zoning might complicate the scaling process if the size of the SAN increases.

205 .
SMI-S Standard uses which of the following?
A)
.NET
B)
CIM-XML/HTTP
C)
CORBA
D)
Java RMI

Correct Answer :   CIM-XML/HTTP

Explanation : The Distributed Management Task Force maintains a Common Information Model (CIM) to represent a common set of network objects and their relationships. CIM-XML/HTTP refers to the operations of CIM being performed over HTTP or XML. SMI-S uses CIM-XML/HTTP.

206 .
The application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents is called ______
A)
TCP
B)
HTML
C)
SNMP
D)
SNMP/IP

Correct Answer :   SNMP

Explanation : SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol. It is an application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents. It is used under the TCP/IP protocol suite and is used for managing devices on the internet.

207 .
Full duplex mode increases the capacity of each domain by _____
A)
1 to 2 mbps
B)
10 to 20 mbps
C)
20 to 30 mbps
D)
40 to 50 mbps

Correct Answer :   10 to 20 mbps

Explanation : In full duplex mode, both endpoints share a single channel bandwidth to achieve two-way transmission. This results in complete utilization of the band capacity increasing the capacity by 10 to 20 mbps than half-duplex mode.

208 .
Configuration management can be divided into which two subsystems?
A)
Configuration and dialing up
B)
Documentation and dialing up
C)
Management and configuration
D)
Reconfiguration and documentation

Correct Answer :   Reconfiguration and documentation

Explanation : The best current practices report is created by a management group to ensure the most effective configuration management. The group also makes a MIB (Management Information Base) module to help with the configuration management.

209 .
The main difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2 is _______
A)
Integration
B)
Classification
C)
Management
D)
Enhanced security

Correct Answer :   Enhanced security

Explanation : SNMPv3 has introduced new cryptographic security, through which confidentiality is provided by encrypting packets and blocking intruders. It also ensures that the message is coming from a reliable source.

210 .
BER stands for _____
A)
Basic Encoding Rules
B)
Basic Encoding Rotator
C)
Basic Encoding Router
D)
Basic Encoding Resolver

Correct Answer :   Basic Encoding Rules

Explanation : The Basic Encoding Rules are a set of rules that specify the guidelines to encode the SNMP messages in binary form. Each SNMP message is encoded into 3 parts namely data, length and type of message.

211 .
SNMP is the framework for managing devices in an internet using the ______
A)
UDP
B)
SMTP
C)
TCP/IP protocol
D)
None of the Above

Correct Answer :   TCP/IP protocol

Explanation : SNMP is a management protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents using the TCP/IP protocol suite. SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol.

212 .
The application layer protocol used by a Telnet application is ______
A)
FTP
B)
Telnet
C)
HTTP
D)
SMTP

Correct Answer :   Telnet

Explanation : Telnet is an application layer protocol that provides access to the command-line interface on a remote host. Telnet stands for teletype network.

213 .
Telnet is used for _______
A)
Television on net
B)
Remote Login
C)
Teleshopping site
D)
Network of Telephones

Correct Answer :   Remote Login

Explanation : Telnet is an application layer protocol that provides access to the command line interface of a remote computer that can be used to perform remote login.

214 .
Which operating mode of telnet is full duplex?
A)
Server mode
B)
Default mode
C)
Character mode
D)
Line mode

Correct Answer :   Line mode

Explanation : In line mode, terminal character processing is done on the client side but editing is enabled on the server side. Line mode reduces the number of packets and is useful for long delay networks.

215 .
If we want that a character be interpreted by the client instead of server ____
A)
It is not possible
B)
Cli character has to be used
C)
Control functions has to be disabled
D)
Interpret as command (IAC) escape character has to be used

Correct Answer :   Interpret as command (IAC) escape character has to be used

Explanation : The client must look at each byte that arrives and look for IAC escape character. If IAC is found, the client moves on to look for any other code or IAC. If the next byte is IAC – a single byte is presented by the client to the terminal. If IAC is followed by any other code than IAC, the client interprets this as a command.

216 .
Two broad categories of congestion control are
A)
Open-loop and Closed-loop
B)
Active loop and Passive loop
C)
Open-control and Closed-control
D)
Active control and Passive control

Correct Answer :   Open-loop and Closed-loop

Explanation : Open loop congestion control techniques are used to prevent congestion before it even happens by enforcing certain policies. Closed loop congestion control techniques are used to treat congestion after it has happened.

217 .
In Go-Back-N window, when the timer of the packet times out, several packets have to be resent even some may have arrived safe. Whereas in Selective Repeat window, the sender resends ___________
A)
All the packets
B)
Packet which are not lost
C)
Only those packets which are lost or corrupted
D)
Only those packets which are lost or corrupted

Correct Answer :   Only those packets which are lost or corrupted

Explanation : In Selective Repeat, the sender side uses a searching algorithm to find the packets which need to be retransmitted based on the negative acknowledgements received and then resends only those packets thus saving bandwidth.

218 .
Discarding policy is mainly done by _______
A)
Sender
B)
Router
C)
Switch
D)
Receiver

Correct Answer :   Router

Explanation : The discarding policy adopted by the routers mainly states that the routers discard sensitive or corrupted packets that it receives, thus controlling the integrity of the packet flow. The discarding policy is adopted as an open loop congestion control technique.

219 .
Closed-Loop control mechanisms try to _________
A)
Remove after sometime
B)
Prevent before sending packets
C)
Prevent before congestion occurs
D)
Remove after congestion occurs

Correct Answer :   Remove after congestion occurs

Explanation : In closed loop congestion control, methods are implemented to remove congestion after it occurs. Some of the methods used are backpressure and choke packet.

220 .
The technique in which a congested node stops receiving data from the immediate upstream node or nodes is called as _______
A)
Backpressure
B)
Admission policy
C)
Forward signaling
D)
Backward signaling

Correct Answer :   Backpressure

Explanation : In this closed loop congestion control technique, the congested node propagates in the opposite direction of the data flow to inform the predecessor node to reduce the flow of packets. This is why this technique is called a node-to-node congestion control technique.

221 .
In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases __________ until it reaches a threshold.
A)
suddenly
B)
additively
C)
multiplicatively
D)
exponentially

Correct Answer :   exponentially

Explanation : In slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases exponentially until it reaches a threshold. When it reaches the threshold, it stops increasing and continues sending packets through the threshold window thus preventing congestion.

222 .
ATM and frame relay are ________
A)
datagram networks
B)
virtual public networks
C)
virtual circuit networks
D)
virtual private networks

Correct Answer :   virtual circuit networks

Explanation : ATM and frame relay are transmission modes in which information is transferred through electric circuit layer as packets. ATM has fixed packet size and frame relay has variable packet size.

223 .
ATM uses _______
A)
asynchronous space division multiplexing
B)
asynchronous time division multiplexing
C)
asynchronous frequency division multiplexing
D)
asynchronous amplitude division multiplexing

Correct Answer :   asynchronous time division multiplexing

Explanation : ATM uses a constant data stream consisting of transmission cells to transmit information in a fixed division of time. The packet size remains fixed.

224 .
Frame relay has error detection at the ______
A)
network layer
B)
physical layer
C)
data link layer
D)
transport layer

Correct Answer :   data link layer

Explanation : The Frame Relay header contains an 8-bit Header Error Control field (HEC). The HEC field contains an 8-bit CRC which is used for error control.

225 .
What is FRAD in frame relay network?
A)
FRAD is used for error recovery
B)
FRAD is used for error detection
C)
FRAD is used for modulation and demodulation
D)
FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames coming from other protocols

Correct Answer :   FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames coming from other protocols

Explanation : FRAD stands for Frame Relay Assembler/Disassembler. It converts packets into frames that can be transmitted over Frame Relay Networks. It operates at the physical layer.

226 .
The address that is unique in the scope of the network or internationally if the network is part of an international network is called as ______
A)
Global address
B)
IP address
C)
Network address
D)
Physical address

Correct Answer :   Global address

Explanation : Global address is a network address that is unique internationally and is used as a common address by all the users of the network. It is used to create a virtual circuit identifier.

227 .
Steps required in setup process are ___________
A)
Setup request and acknowledgement
B)
Setup and termination steps
C)
Setup request and setup response
D)
Setup request and setup termination

Correct Answer :   Setup request and acknowledgement

Explanation : Setup request (sent by a source) and acknowledgement (sent by the destination) are the steps in the setup process. Both the ends’ switches make table entries during the setup process.

228 .
Delay of the resource allocated during setup phase during data transfer is ________
A)
constant
B)
same for each packet
C)
different for each packet
D)
increases for each packet

Correct Answer :   same for each packet

Explanation : If a resource is allocated during setup phase, delay is same for each packet as there is only one-time delay during the setup phase and no delay during the data transfer phase.

229 .
In data transfer phase, how many columns does the table contain?
A)
2
B)
3
C)
4
D)
5

Correct Answer :   4

Explanation : The switch maintains a table for each Virtual Circuit Network. In the data transfer phase, it maintains 2 columns each for incoming data and outgoing data. The columns are in the following order: Source port, Source VCI, Destination port, Destination VCI.

230 .
Frame Relay is cheaper than other _____
A)
LANs
B)
MANs
C)
WANs
D)
Multipoint Networks

Correct Answer :   WANs

Explanation : Frame relay is a standardized wide area network technology and is popularly used because it is cheaper than leased line WANs. It is also very simple to configure user equipment in a Frame Relay network.

231 .
There are ________ total features of Frame Relay.
A)
Five
B)
Six
C)
Eight
D)
Nine

Correct Answer :   Nine

Explanation : Frame relay is a wide area network technology used to transmit information over a network in the form of frames using relays. The frames are of variable size. It is cheaper than other WANs and it’s simple to configure user equipment in the network.

232 .
Frame Relay does not provide flow or error control, they must be provided by the ______
A)
Highest Level Protocol
B)
Lower Level Protocol
C)
Upper Level Protocol
D)
Lowest Level Protocol

Correct Answer :   Highest Level Protocol

Explanation : Frame relay only provides error detection using CRC. If errors are detected, the upper-layer protocols, such as TCP are expected to provide error correction features. Network layer provides flow control.

233 .
Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called _______
A)
cell relay identifier
B)
data link connection identifier
C)
frame relay identifier
D)
circuit connection identifier

Correct Answer :   data link connection identifier

Explanation : The Data Link Connection Identifier is 10-bit virtual circuit identifier. It is used to assign frames to the specified Permanent Virtual Circuits or Switched Virtual Circuits.

234 .
What is a web browser?
A)
A program that can display a web page
B)
A program used to view html documents
C)
It enables user to access the resources of internet
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above

Explanation : A web browser is an application program that is used to access the World Wide Web resources, applications and websites. Some examples of web browsers are Google Chrome, Internet Explorer and Safari.

235 .
URL stands for _____
A)
unique reference label
B)
uniform reference label
C)
uniform resource locator
D)
unique resource locator

Correct Answer :   uniform resource locator

Explanation : The Uniform Resource Locator is a locator for the resource to be located by HTTP on the World Wide Web. The URL is derived from the Uniform Resource Identifier.

236 .
What is document object model (DOM)?
A)
scripting language
B)
hierarchy of objects in ASP.NET
C)
application programming interface
D)
convention for representing and interacting with objects in html documents

Correct Answer :   convention for representing and interacting with objects in html documents

Explanation : DOM is a hierarchical model i.e. a tree used to represent an HTML or XML document. Every node of the tree an object that represents a part of the document.

237 .
Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is not related to fragmentation?
A)
TOS
B)
Flags
C)
Offset
D)
Identifier

Correct Answer :   TOS

Explanation : TOS-type of service identifies the type of packets. It is not related to fragmentation but is used to request specific treatment such as high throughput, high reliability or low latency for the IP packet depending upon the type of service it belongs to.

238 .
The data field cannot carry which of the following?
A)
TCP segment
B)
ICMP messages
C)
UDP segment
D)
SMTP messages

Correct Answer :   ICMP messages

Explanation : Data field usually has transport layer segments, but it can also carry ICMP messages. SMTP is an application layer protocol. First it must go through the transport layer to be converted into TCP segments and then it can be inserted into IP packets.

239 .
In IPv4 Addresses, classful addressing is replaced with ______
A)
Classful Addressing
B)
Classless Addressing
C)
Classful Advertising
D)
Classless Advertising

Correct Answer :   Classless Addressing

Explanation : Classful addressing is replaced with classless addressing as a large ratio of the available addresses in a class in calssful addressing is wasted. In classless addressing, one can reserve the number of IP addresses required by modifying the CIDR value and make sure that not many addresses are wasted.

240 .
In classful addressing, a large part of available addresses are ________
A)
Blocked
B)
Organized
C)
Wasted
D)
Communicated

Correct Answer :   Wasted

Explanation : In classful addressing, a large part of available addresses are wasted. Thus to solve this classful addressing is replaced with classless addressing where one can reserve the number of IP addresses required by modifying the CIDR value and make sure that not many addresses are wasted.

241 .
The size of an IP address in IPv6 is _______
A)
4 bytes
B)
8 bytes
C)
32 bytes
D)
128 bits

Correct Answer :   128 bits

Explanation : An IPv6 address is 128 bits long. Therefore, 2128 i.e. 340 undecillion addresses are possible in IPv6. IPv4 has only 4 billion possible addresses and IPv6 would be a brilliant alternative in case IPv4 runs out of possible new addresses.

242 .
In the IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar to which field in the IPv4 header?
A)
ToS field
B)
Option field
C)
Fast-switching
D)
Fragmentation field

Correct Answer :   ToS field

Explanation : The traffic class field is used to specify the priority of the IP packet which is a similar functionality to the Type of Service field in the IPv4 header. It’s an 8-bit field and its values are not defined in the RFC 2460.

243 .
The _________ field determines the lifetime of IPv6 datagram
A)
TTL
B)
Next header
C)
Hop limit
D)
Type of traffic

Correct Answer :   Hop limit

Explanation : The Hop limit value is decremented by one by a router when the datagram is forwarded by the router. When the value becomes zero the datagram is discarded. The field is 8-bits wide, so an IPv6 packet can live up to 255 router hops only.

244 .
Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is represented by bits ______
A)
0 to 63
B)
96 to 127
C)
64 to 79
D)
80 to 95

Correct Answer :   96 to 127

Explanation : Teredo is a technique through which gives the possibility for full IPv6 network connectivity to IPv6 capable hosts which are currently on an IPv4 network. Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram represents obfuscated 1Pv4 address of the IPv4 network.

245 .
Dual-stack approach refers to ________
A)
Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks
B)
Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks
C)
Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support
D)
Implementing a MAC address with 2 stacks

Correct Answer :   Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support

Explanation : Dual-stack is one of the approaches used to support IPv6 in already existing systems. ISPs are using it as a method to transfer from IPv4 to IPv6 completely eventually due to the lower number of possible available addresses in IPv4.

246 .
When was IPv6 launched?
A)
June 1, 2011
B)
June 6, 2011
C)
June 1, 2012
D)
June 6, 2012

Correct Answer :   June 6, 2012

Explanation : IPv6 is the latest version of the Internet Protocol released on 6th June 2012. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long. Therefore, 2128 i.e. 340 undecillion addresses are possible in IPv6.

247 .
Which layer is responsible for process-to-process delivery?
A)
Transport layer
B)
Network layer
C)
Physical layer
D)
Application layer

Correct Answer :   Transport layer

Explanation : The transport layer is responsible for process-to-process delivery, error control and flow control. It provides an interface for the implementation of process to process delivery through ports. There are 65,535 port numbers.

248 .
In process-to-process delivery, two processes communicate in which of the following methods?
A)
Client/Server
B)
Peer to Peer
C)
Message Transfer
D)
Source/Destination

Correct Answer :   Client/Server

Explanation : The most common method used for this communication is Client/Server. The client requests a service through a particular port number to the port of the server using its socket address. Then the server responds by giving the requested service to the client port.

249 .
Range of port numbers in Internet model is __________
A)
0 and 32,765(8-bit)
B)
0 and 65,535(16-bit)
C)
0 and 32,765(16-bit)
D)
0 and 65,535(32-bit)

Correct Answer :   0 and 65,535(16-bit)

Explanation : Port numbers are 16-bit integers between 0 and 65,535. They are an interface for the implementation of process to process delivery for the transport layer.

250 .
According to Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA), which of the following ranges is not a part of port number ranges?
A)
Registered ports
B)
Well-known ports
C)
Static ports
D)
Dynamic ports

Correct Answer :   Static ports

Explanation : IANA divided port numbers into three ranges i.e., Well-known, Registered and Dynamic ports. Well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023, registered port numbers are from 1024 to 49151 and dynamic port numbers are from 49152 to 65535.

251 .
The process of error checking and dropping of the header, delivering messages to appropriate process based on port number is called as _______
A)
Multiplexing
B)
Error correction
C)
Delivery of packets
D)
Demultiplexing

Correct Answer :   Demultiplexing

Explanation : Demultiplexing is the process of error checking and dropping of the header, delivering messages to appropriate process based on port number. The transport layer does this on the receiver’s end after the packet is received and takes help of the header attached by the sender’s side transport layer during multiplexing.

252 .
Header size of the ICMP message is _____
A)
8-bytes
B)
8-bits
C)
16-bytes
D)
16-bits

Correct Answer :   8-bytes

Explanation : An ICMP message has an 8-byte header and a variable size data section. Out of the 8 bytes, the first 4 bytes are of a fixed format having the type, code and checksum fields and the next 4 bytes depend upon the type of the message.

253 .
The source-quench message in ICMP was designed to add a kind of ____________ to the IP.
A)
flow control
B)
router control
C)
switch control
D)
error control

Correct Answer :   flow control

Explanation : Firstly, it informs the source that the datagram has been discarded. Secondly, it warns the source that there is congestion in the network. It’s type 4 error reporting message after which the source is expected to reduce the flow of packets.

254 .
During debugging, we can use the ____________ program to find if a host is alive and responding.
A)
java
B)
ping
C)
shell
D)
traceroute

Correct Answer :   ping

Explanation : Ping program is used to find if a host is alive and responding. It is to be entered into a command line with the syntax “ping (IP address)” to be executed. Traceroute is a program used to find the shortest route to the destination IP.

255 .
Which of the following is the broadcast address for a Class B network ID using the default subnetmask?
A)
172.16.10.255
B)
172.255.255.255
C)
172.16.255.255
D)
255.255.255.255

Correct Answer :   172.16.255.255

Explanation : In this case, the class B network ID is 172.16.0.0. We know that the default mask of a class B network is 255.255.0.0. If we OR any address in a network with the complement of the default mask (0.0.255.255), we get the broadcast address of the network. In this case, the result of OR would be 172.16.255.255.

256 .
You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class of address, subnet address, and broadcast address?
A)
Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
B)
Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.255
C)
Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address 172.16.255.255
D)
Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127

Correct Answer :   Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127

Explanation : We know that the prefix 172 lies in class B (128 to 191) of IPv4 addresses. From the subnet mask, we get that the class is divided into 2 subnets: 172.16.13.0 to 172.16.13.127 and 172.16.13.128 to 172.16.13.255. The IP 172.16.13.5 lies in the first subnet. So the starting address 172.16.13.0 is the subnet address and last address 172.16.13.127 is the broadcast address.

257 .
If you wanted to have 12 subnets with a Class C network ID, which subnet mask would you use?
A)
255.255.255.240
B)
255.255.255.248
C)
255.255.255.252
D)
255.255.255.255

Correct Answer :   255.255.255.240

Explanation :

If you have eight networks and each requires 10 hosts, you would use the Class C mask of 255.255.255.240. Why? Because 240 in binary is 11110000, which means you have four subnet bits and four host bits. Using our math, we’d get the following:
24-2=14 subnets
24-2=14 hosts.

258 .
Which of the following are Gigabit Ethernets?
A)
1000 BASE-CX
B)
1000 BASE-LX
C)
1000 BASE-SX
D)
All of the above

Correct Answer :   All of the above

Explanation : In computer networking, Gigabit Ethernet (GbE or 1 GigE) is a term describing various technologies for transmitting Ethernet frames at a rate of a gigabit per second (1,000,000,000 bits per second), as defined by the IEEE 802.3-2008 standard. It came into use beginning in 1999, gradually supplanting Fast Ethernet in wired local networks, as a result of being considerably faster.

259 .
_________ is another kind of fiber optic network with an active star for switching.
A)
SW/NET
B)
S/NET
C)
NET/SW
D)
FS/NET

Correct Answer :   S/NET

Explanation : A 50-MBd active star fiber optical Local area network (LAN) and its optical combiner and mixing rod splitter are presented. The limited power budget and relatively large tapping losses of light wave technology, which limit the use of fiber optics in tapped bus LAN topologies, are examined and proven tolerable in optical star topologies.

260 .
What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
A)
16
B)
24
C)
30
D)
35

Correct Answer :   30

Explanation : A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts. Does it matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or C network address? Not at all. The number of host bits would never change.

261 .
You need to subnet a network into 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which classful subnet mask would you use?
A)
255.255.255.192
B)
255.255.255.240
C)
255.255.255.224
D)
255.255.255.248

Correct Answer :   255.255.255.224

Explanation : You need 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240 provides 16 subnets with 14 hosts which is less than 15, so this will not work. The mask 255.255.255.224 provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts so this may work. The mask 255.255.255.192 provides 4 subnets, each with 60 hosts so this may work. Comparing both the possible masks, 255.255.255.224 provides the best answer.

262 .
You have a network that needs 29 subnets while maximizing the number of host addresses available on each subnet. How many bits must you borrow from the host field to provide the correct subnet mask?
A)
2
B)
3
C)
4
D)
5

Correct Answer :   5

Explanation : A 240 mask is 4 subnet bits and provides 16 subnets, each with 14 hosts. We need more subnets, so let’s add subnet bits. One more subnet bit would be a 248 mask. This provides 5 subnet bits (32 subnets) with 3 host bits (6 hosts per subnet).

263 .
What is the subnet id of a host with an IP address 172.16.66.0/21?
A)
172.16.64.0
B)
172.16.48.0
C)
172.16.36.0
D)
172.16.0.0

Correct Answer :   172.16.64.0

Explanation : A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which means we have a block size of 8 in the third octet, so we just count by 8 until we reach 66. The subnet in this question is 64.0. The next subnet is 72.0, so the broadcast address of the 64 subnet is 71.255.

264 .
The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts?
A)
7 subnets, 30 hosts each
B)
8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
C)
7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
D)
8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each

Correct Answer :   8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each

Explanation : A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that is only 3 subnet bits, but it provides 13 host bits, or 8 subnets, each with 8,190 hosts.

265 .
Which type of Ethernet framing is used for TCP/IP and DEC net?
A)
Ethernet SNAP
B)
Ethernet II
C)
Ethernet 802.2
D)
Ethernet 802.3

Correct Answer :   Ethernet II

Explanation : The Ethernet 802.3 framing is used for NetWare versions 2 to 3.11, and the Ethernet 802.2 framing is used for NetWare versions 3.12 and later plus OSI routing, Ethernet II is used with TCP/IP and DEC net, and Ethernet SNAP is used with TCP/IP and AppleTalk. The type field in Ethernet 802.2 frame is replaced by a length field in Ethernet 802.3.

266 .
Consider a situation in which you are a system administrator on a NetWare network, you are running NetWare 4.11 and you cannot communicate with your router. What is the likely problem?
A)
Cisco routers only work with NetWare 3.11
B)
NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.3 encapsulation
C)
NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation
D)
NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation

Correct Answer :   NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation

Explanation : The default encapsulation on Cisco routers is Novell Ethernet_802.3 and NetWare 3.12and later defaults to 802.2 encapsulation, 3.11 and earlier defaults to 802.3.

267 .
Which NetWare protocol works on layer 3–network layer—of the OSI model?
A)
IPX
B)
SPX
C)
NCP
D)
NetBIOS

Correct Answer :   IPX

Explanation : IPX (Internetwork Packet Exchange) is the NetWare network layer 3 protocol used for transferring information on LANs that use Novell’s NetWare.

268 .
Which NetWare protocol provides link-state routing?
A)
RIP
B)
SAP
C)
NCP
D)
NLSP

Correct Answer :   NLSP

Explanation : NetWare Link Services Protocol (NLSP) provides link-state routing. SAP (Service Advertisement Protocol) advertises network services. NCP (NetWare Core Protocol) provides client-to-server connections and applications. RIP is a distance vector routing protocol. NLSP was developed by Novell to replace RIP routing protocols.

269 .
The "IPX delay number" command will allow an administrator to change the default settings. What are the default settings?
A)
For LAN interfaces, six ticks; for WAN interfaces, one tick
B)
For LAN interfaces, zero ticks; for WAN interfaces, five ticks
C)
For LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks
D)
For LAN interfaces, five ticks; for WAN interfaces, zero Ticks

Correct Answer :   For LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks

Explanation : Tick is basically the update rate of clients in the network. The IPX delay number will give the ticks at a certain time. The default ticks are–for LAN interfaces, one tick, and for WAN interfaces, six ticks.

270 .
What does the "IPX maximum-paths 2" command accomplish?
A)
It sets up routing to go to network 2
B)
It is the default for Cisco IPX load sharing
C)
It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are unequal metric paths
D)
It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths

Correct Answer :   It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths

Explanation : It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths. The default is 1 path and the maximum is 512 paths. The value must always be greater than 1 and must be a natural number.

271 .
To prevent Service Advertisements (SAPs) from flooding a network, Cisco routers do not forward them. How are services advertised to other networks?
A)
Cisco routers filter out all SAPs
B)
SAPs aren’t necessary with Cisco routers
C)
Each router assigns a service number and broadcasts that
D)
Each router builds its own SAP table and forwards that every 60 seconds

Correct Answer :   Each router builds its own SAP table and forwards that every 60 seconds

Explanation : Cisco routers build SAP tables and forward the table every 60 seconds. All SAPs can’t befiltered even with 4.x since NDS and time synchronization uses SAPs.

272 .
Which routing protocol has a maximum network diameter (hop count) of 15?
A)
RIPv1
B)
RIPv2
C)
Both RIPv1 and RIPv2
D)
EIGRP

Correct Answer :   Both RIPv1 and RIPv2

Explanation : Both RIPv1 and RIPv2 support a maximum hop count of 15 because they use 4-bits to store this value. RIPv1 uses classful routing whereas RIPv2 uses classless routing. The routing updates are broadcasted over the network. It notifies routers about the update so that they update their own routing tables.

273 .
How often does a RIPv1 router broadcast its routing table by default?
A)
Every 90 seconds
B)
Every 30 seconds
C)
Every 60 seconds
D)
RIPv1 does not broadcast periodically

Correct Answer :   Every 30 seconds

Explanation : RIPv1 router broadcasts its routing table every 30 seconds by default. The broadcasted routing table can be used by other routers to find the shortest path among the network devices.

274 .
Which command displays RIP routing updates?
A)
Debug IP RIP
B)
Show IP Route
C)
Show Protocols
D)
Debug IP Route

Correct Answer :   Debug IP RIP

Explanation : The debug IP rip command is used to show the Internet Protocol (IP) Routing Information Protocol (RIP) updates being sent and received on the router. It verifies that the updates are being broadcasted and not multicasted.

275 .
Where should we use default routing?
A)
On stub networks- which have only one exit path out of the network
B)
Minimum five exit paths out of the network
C)
Maximum five exit paths out of the network
D)
Which have more than one exit path out of the network

Correct Answer :   On stub networks- which have only one exit path out of the network

Explanation : RIP gives a full route table update every 30 seconds. The broadcasted routing table can be used by other routers to find the shortest path among the network devices.

276 .
In cryptography, what is cipher?
A)
encrypted message
B)
decrypted message
C)
algorithm for performing encryption and decryption
D)
both algorithm for performing encryption and decryption and encrypted message

Correct Answer :   algorithm for performing encryption and decryption

Explanation : Cipher is a method to implement encryption and decryption of messages travelling in a network. It’s used to increase the confidentiality of the messages.

277 .
Which one of the following algorithm is not used in asymmetric-key cryptography?
A)
rsa algorithm
B)
dsa algorithm
C)
diffie-hellman algorithm
D)
electronic code book algorithm

Correct Answer :   electronic code book algorithm

Explanation : Electronic code book algorithm is a block cipher method in which each block of text in an encrypted message corresponds to a block of data. It is not feasible for block sizes smaller than 40 bits.

278 .
What is data encryption standard (DES)?
A)
bit cipher
B)
block cipher
C)
byte cipher
D)
stream cipher

Correct Answer :   block cipher

Explanation : DES is a symmetric key block cipher in which the block size is 64 bits and the key size is 64 bits. It is vulnerable to some attacks and is hence not that popularly used.

279 .
Which one of the following is a cryptographic protocol used to secure HTTP connection?
A)
Resource Reservation Protocol(RRP)
B)
Transport Layer Security (TLS)
C)
Explicit Congestion Notification (ECN)
D)
Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP)

Correct Answer :   Transport Layer Security (TLS)

Explanation : TLS has strong message authentication and key-material generation to prevent eavesdropping, tampering and message forgery. It has been used since the year 1996.

280 .
Cryptographic hash function takes an arbitrary block of data and returns _________
A)
fixed size bit string
B)
variable size bit string
C)
variable sized byte string
D)
both fixed size bit string and variable size bit string

Correct Answer :   fixed size bit string

Explanation : Cryptographic hash functions are used in digital signatures and message authentication codes. The only issue with it is that it returns the same hash value every time for a message making it vulnerable to attackers to evaluate and break the cipher.

281 .
Which methods are commonly used in Server Socket class?
A)
Public void connect ()
B)
Public synchronized void close ()
C)
Public Socket accept ()
D)
Public Output Stream get Output Stream ()

Correct Answer :   Public Socket accept ()

Explanation : The Public socket accept () method is used by the ServerSocket class to accept the connection request of exactly one client at a time. The client requests by initializing the socket object with the servers IP address.

282 .
Which constructor of Datagram Socket class is used to create a datagram socket and binds it with the given Port Number?
A)
Datagram Socket()
B)
Datagram Socket(int port)
C)
Datagram Socket(int address)
D)
Datagram Socket(int port, Int Address address)

Correct Answer :   Datagram Socket(int port, Int Address address)

Explanation : Datagram Socket (int port, Int Address address) is used to create a datagram socket. A datagram socket is created for connection-less communication between the server and the client. There is no accept() method in this class.

283 .
What does the java.net.InetAddress class represent?
A)
IP Address
B)
Socket
C)
Protocol
D)
MAC Address

Correct Answer :   IP Address

Explanation : The java.net.InetAddress class represents IP Address of a particular specified host. It can be used to resolve the host name from the IP address or the IP address from the host name.

284 .
Which classes are used for connection-less socket programming?
A)
Server Socket
B)
Datagram Packet
C)
Datagram Socket
D)
Both Datagram Socket & Datagram Packet

Correct Answer :   Both Datagram Socket & Datagram Packet

Explanation : Datagram is basically some information travelling between the sender and the receiver, but there is no guarantee of its content, arrival or arrival time. Datagram Socket, Datagram Packet are used for connection-less socket programming, while Server Socket is used for connection-oriented socket programming.

285 .
The Cookie manipulation is done using which property?
A)
cookies
B)
cookie
C)
manipulate
D)
manipulate cookie

Correct Answer :   cookie

Explanation : The cookie property sets or returns all name/value pairs of cookies in the current document. There are no methods involved: cookies are queried, set, and deleted by reading and writing the cookie property of the Document object using specially formatted strings.

286 .
Which of the following explains Cookies nature?
A)
Volatile
B)
Non Volatile
C)
Transient
D)
Intransient

Correct Answer :   Transient

Explanation : Cookies are transient by default; the values they store last for the duration of the web browser session but are lost when the user exits the browser. While the browsing session is active the cookie stores the user values in the user’s storage itself and accesses them.

287 .
Which attribute is used to extend the lifetime of a cookie?
A)
Lifetime
B)
Max-age
C)
Higher-age
D)
Increase-age

Correct Answer :   Max-age

Explanation : If you want a cookie to last beyond a single browsing session, you must tell the browser how long (in seconds) you would like it to retain the cookie by specifying a max-age attribute. A number of seconds until the cookie expires. A zero or negative number will kill the cookie immediately.

288 .
Which of the following function is used as a consequence of not including semicolons, Commas or whitespace in the Cookie value?
A)
Encode()
B)
EncodeURI()
C)
EncodeComponent()
D)
EncodeURIComponent()

Correct Answer :   EncodeURIComponent()

Explanation : Cookie values cannot include semicolons, commas, or whitespace. For this reason, you may want to use the core JavaScript global function encodeURIComponent() to encode the value before storing it in the cookie.

289 .
A second technique to reduce routing table and simplify searching process is called _________
A)
Network-Specific Method
B)
Network-Specific Motion
C)
Network-Specific Membership
D)
Network-Specific Maintaining

Correct Answer :   Network-Specific Method

Explanation : In the network specific forwarding method, there is only one record, the destination of the packet, in the routing table and not the other hosts of the network. The other two forwarding methods are the default method and the next-hop method.

290 .
IPSec is designed to provide security at the _________
A)
network layer
B)
session layer
C)
transport layer
D)
application layer

Correct Answer :   network layer

Explanation : IPSec is a set of protocols used to provide authentication, data integrity and confidentiality between two machines in an IP network. In the TCP/IP model, it provides security at the IP layer i.e. the network layer.

291 .
Network layer firewall works as a ________
A)
frame filter
B)
signal filter
C)
packet filter
D)
content filter

Correct Answer :   packet filter

Explanation : As you know, firewalls are available as hardware appliances, as software-only, or a combination of the two. In every case, the purpose of a firewall is to isolate your trusted internal network (or your personal PC) from the dangers of unknown resources on the Internet and other network connections that may be harmful. The firewall prevents unauthorized access to your internal, trusted network from outside threats.

292 .
Extensible authentication protocol is authentication framework frequently used in ______
A)
wired local area network
B)
wireless networks
C)
wired personal area network
D)
wired metropolitan area network

Correct Answer :   wireless networks

Explanation : The Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication protocol used to connect a network node to the Internet. It designed through extending the methods used by the Point-to-Point Protocol for authentication.

293 .
When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect information from a host that has no authority giving that information, then it is called _________
A)
DNS lookup
B)
DNS spoofing
C)
DNS hijacking
D)
DNS authorizing

Correct Answer :   DNS spoofing

Explanation : In DNS spoofing, also known as DNS cache poisoning, an attacker gets the valid credentials from a victim by spoofing the intended resource, and tricking the victim to give his/her valid authorization credentials.

294 .
What is the access point (AP) in a wireless LAN?
A)
wireless devices itself
B)
both device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network and wireless devices itself
C)
device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network
D)
all the nodes in the network

Correct Answer :   device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network

Explanation : Access point in a wireless network is any device that will allow the wireless devices to a wired network. A router is the best example of an Access Point.

295 .
Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
A)
CDMA
B)
ALOHA
C)
CSMA/CD
D)
CSMA/CA

Correct Answer :   CSMA/CA

Explanation : CSMA/CA stands for Carrier-sense multiple access/collision avoidance. It is a multiple access protocol used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN. It’s based on the principle of collision avoidance by using different algorithms to avoid collisions between channels.

296 .
Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.
A)
orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
B)
time division multiplexing
C)
space division multiplexing
D)
channel division multiplexing

Correct Answer :   orthogonal frequency division multiplexing

Explanation : In orthogonal frequency division multiplexing, digital data is encoded on multiple carrier frequencies. It is also used in digital television and audio broadcasting in addition to Wireless LANs.

297 .
What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?
A)
security algorithm for emails
B)
security algorithm for ethernet
C)
security algorithm for usb communication
D)
security algorithm for wireless networks

Correct Answer :   security algorithm for wireless networks

Explanation : WEP is a security algorithm for wireless network which intended to provide data confidentiality comparable to that of traditional wired networks. It was introduced in 1997.

298 .
What is WPA?
A)
wi-fi process access
B)
wi-fi protected access
C)
wired process access
D)
wired protected access

Correct Answer :   wi-fi protected access

Explanation : WPA or WiFi Protected Access is a security protocol used to provide users and firms with strong data security and protection for their wireless networks (WiFi) to give them confidence that only authorized users can access their network.

299 .
SONET stands for __________
A)
stream optical network
B)
shell operational network
C)
synchronous optical network
D)
synchronous operational network

Correct Answer :   synchronous optical network

Explanation : SONET stands for synchronous optical network. Frame relay uses SONET to physically transmit data frames over a Frame Relay network as SONET is cheaper and provides better network reliability than other carriers.

300 .
The photonic layer of the SONET is similar to the __________ of OSI model.
A)
network layer
B)
data link layer
C)
physical layer
D)
transport layer

Correct Answer :   physical layer

Explanation : The photonic layer in SONET is like the physical layer of the OSI model. It is the lowest layer among the four layers of SONET namely the photonic, the section, the line, and the path layers.

301 .
What is SDH?
A)
Synchronous Digital Hierarchy
B)
SDH is Similar Standard to SONET Developed by ITU-T
C)
SDH stands for Synchronous Digital Hierarchy and is a similar standard to SONET developed by ITU-T
D)
None of the above

Correct Answer :   sdh stands for synchronous digital hierarchy and is a similar standard to SONET developed by ITU-T

Explanation : SDH is a standard that allows low bit rates to be combined into high-rate data streams and as it is synchronous, each individual bit stream can be embedded into and extracted from high-rate data streams easily.

302 .
What is internet?
A)
a single network
B)
interconnection of local area networks
C)
interconnection of wide area networks
D)
a vast collection of different networks

Correct Answer :   a vast collection of different networks

Explanation : Internet is nothing but an interconnected computer network providing a variety of communication facilities, consisting of a huge amount of small networks using standardized communication protocols.

303 .
Which of the following protocols is used in the internet?
A)
DHCP
B)
HTTP
C)
DNS
D)
DNS, HTTP and DNS

Correct Answer :   DNS, HTTP and DNS

Explanation : HTTP is used to browse all the websites on the World Wide Web, DHCP is used to allot IPs automatically to the users on the internet, and DNS is used to connect the users to the host servers on the internet based on the Domain Name.

304 .
Which protocol assigns IP address to the client connected in the internet?
A)
DHCP
B)
IP
C)
RPC
D)
RSVP

Correct Answer :   DHCP

Explanation : DHCP stands for Domain Host Control Protocol. It is responsible to remotely assign IP address to the clients connected to the internet. The server that performs this fuction is called the DHCP server.

305 .
In a piconet, there can be up to ________ parked nodes in the network.
A)
511
B)
255
C)
127
D)
63

Correct Answer :   255

Explanation : A slave node in a piconet can be instructed by the master node to go into parked mode. Then the slave node enters the parked mode in which the node is not disconnected from the network but is inactive unless the master wakes it up.

306 .
What is A2DP (advanced audio distribution profile)?
A)
a bluetooth profile for security
B)
a bluetooth profile for streaming video
C)
a bluetooth profile for streaming audio
D)
a bluetooth profile for file management

Correct Answer :   a bluetooth profile for streaming audio

Explanation : A2DP stands for Advanced Audio Distribution Profile is a transfer standard use to transmit high definition audio through Bluetooth. It is mainly used in Bluetooth speakers and wireless headphones.

307 .
Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______ band.
A)
2.6 GHz ISM
B)
2.5 GHz ISM
C)
2.4 GHz ISM
D)
2.7 GHz ISM

Correct Answer :   2.4 GHz ISM

Explanation : Bluetooth operates on 2.45 GHz frequency ISM band for transmission. It is used to create a wireless personal area network for data transfer up to a distance of 10 meters.

308 .
WiMAX stands for ________
A)
wireless maximum communication
B)
worldwide interoperability for microwave access
C)
wireless internet maximum communication
D)
worldwide international standard for microwave access

Correct Answer :   worldwide interoperability for microwave access

Explanation : WiMAX or worldwide interoperability for microwave access is a set of wireless communication standards. It provides support for multiple physical layer (PHY) and Media Access Control (MAC) options. It is based on IEEE 802.16 standards.

309 .
WiMAX is mostly used for _______
A)
wide area network
B)
local area network
C)
personal area network
D)
metropolitan area network

Correct Answer :   metropolitan area network

Explanation : WiMAX provides Wi-Fi connectivity within the home or business for computers and smartphones. WiMAX network operators typically provide a WiMAX Subscriber Unit to do so. The subscriber unit is used to connect to the metropolitan WiMAX network.

310 .
One of the most obvious places to put an IDS sensor is near the firewall. Where exactly in relation to the firewall is the most productive placement?
A)
Inside the firewall
B)
Outside the firewall
C)
Both inside and outside the firewall
D)
Neither inside the firewall nor outside the firewall.

Correct Answer :   Inside the firewall

Explanation : There are legitimate political, budgetary and research reasons to want to see all the “attacks” against your connection, but given the care and feeding any IDS requires, do yourself a favor and keep your NIDS sensors on the inside of the firewall.

311 .
What is the purpose of a shadow honeypot?
A)
To flag attacks against known vulnerabilities
B)
To enhance the accuracy of a traditional honeypot
C)
To help reduce false positives in a signature-based IDS
D)
To randomly check suspicious traffic identified by an anomaly detection system

Correct Answer :   To randomly check suspicious traffic identified by an anomaly detection system

Explanation : “Shadow honeypots,” as researchers call them, share all the same characteristics of protected applications running on both the server and client side of a network and operate in conjunction with an ADS.

312 .
“Semantics-aware” signatures automatically generated by Nemean are based on traffic at which two layers?
A)
Session layer and Transport layer
B)
Network layer and Application layer
C)
Application layer and Session layer
D)
Application layer and Transport layer

Correct Answer :   Application layer and Session layer

Explanation : Nemean automatically generates “semantics-aware” signatures based on traffic at the session and application layers. These signatures are used to ensure that no malicious operation is contained in the traffic.

313 .
Which protocol does the PPP protocol provide for handling the capabilities of the connection/link on the network?
A)
LCP
B)
NCP
C)
Both LCP and NCP
D)
TCP

Correct Answer :   Both LCP and NCP

Explanation : LCP stands for Link Control Protocol and NCP stands for Network Control Protocol. LCP and NCP are the PPP protocols which provide interface for handling the capabilities of the connection/link on the network.

314 .
PPP provides the _______ layer in the TCP/IP suite.
A)
Network
B)
Link
C)
Transport
D)
Application

Correct Answer :   Link

Explanation : PPP provides function of the link layer in the TCP/IP suite. It focuses on the link between two nodes that is going to be used by the users to communicate. It can use pre-installed phone line for the purpose.

315 .
PPP consists of ________components
A)
Three (encapsulating, a link control protocol, NCP)
B)
Three (encapsulating, the Domain Name system)
C)
Two (a link control protocol, Simple Network Control protocol)
D)
One (Simple Network Control protocol)

Correct Answer :   Three (encapsulating, a link control protocol, NCP)

Explanation : PPP consists of three components namely Link Control Protocol (LCP), Network Control Protocol (NCP), and Encapsulation. LCP and NCP are the PPP protocols which provide interface for handling the capabilities of the connection/link on the network and encapsulation provides for multiplexing of different network-layer protocols.

316 .
EIGRP metric is _____
A)
Delay only
B)
Hop Count
C)
Bandwidth only
D)
K-values

Correct Answer :   K-values

Explanation : EIGRP metric is K-values which are integers from 0 to 128. They are used to calculate the overall EIGRP cost with bandwidth and delay metrics.

317 .
EIGRP sends a hello message after every ____ seconds.
A)
15s
B)
180s
C)
5 seconds (LAN), 5 seconds (WAN)
D)
5 seconds (LAN), 60 seconds (WAN)

Correct Answer :   5 seconds (LAN), 60 seconds (WAN)

Explanation : EIGRP routers broadcast the hello packets frequently to familiarize with the neighbors. EIGRP routers send the hello message after every 5 seconds on LAN, and every 60 seconds on WAN.

318 .
For default gateway, which of following commands will you use on a Cisco router?
A)
Default network
B)
IP default route
C)
IP default network
D)
IP default gateway

Correct Answer :   IP default network

Explanation : IP default network command is used to find the default gateway in Cisco router. If the router finds routes to the node, it considers the routes to that node for installation as the gateway to it.

319 .
Administrative distance for external EIGRP route is _______
A)
100
B)
170
C)
135
D)
190

Correct Answer :   170

Explanation : Routers use the metric of administrative distance to select the best path when there are different routes to the same destination from two different routing protocols as it is a measure of reliability of routing protocols. Administrative distance for external EIGRP is 170.

320 .
EIGRP uses the ____________ algorithm for finding shortest path.
A)
DUAL
B)
SPF
C)
Linkstat
D)
Djikstra’s

Correct Answer :   DUAL

Explanation : EIGRP uses the DUAL algorithm for finding shortest path. DUAL stands for diffusing update algorithm and it is used to prevent routing loops by recalculating routes globally.